AIIMS CRE 2025 question paper

AIIMS CRE · 2025 · 100 questions · 90 minutes · 0.25 mark deducted per wrong answer

Medical & Surgical Nursing 30
Obstetrics & Gynaecology 12
Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) 12
Applied Microbiology & Infection control 9
Pharmacology 9
Community Health Nursing 7
Reasoning 6
Nursing Foundations 4
Pathology & Genetics 2
Nursing Education 1
General Knowledge 1
Applied Anatomy 1
English 1
Applied Physiology 1
Applied Nutrition & Dietetics 1
Biochemistry & Nutrition 1
Quantitative Aptitude and Mathematics 1
Nursing Research & Statistics 1

See the answers and explanations

Q1 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms
What is the viral marker used to measure early HIV replication?
1. A.
  Hemoglobin
2. B.
  p24 antigen
3. C.
  Platelet count
4. D.
  CD8 count
Answer and explanation
Q2 · Pharmacology · Miscellaneous
The oral typhoid vaccine, Ty21a, is prescribed for a traveler. How should the nurse instruct the patient to take this vaccine for maximum efficacy?
1. A.
  One capsule daily for three consecutive days
2. B.
  One capsule on alternate days for a total of three doses
3. C.
  A single capsule taken one week before travel
4. D.
  Two capsules taken 12 hours apart on the same day
Answer and explanation
Q3 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Infertility
During infertility assessment, a female is diagnosed with Asherman's syndrome. What is the primary mechanism by which this condition causes infertility?
1. A.
  Abnormal cervical mucus
2. B.
  Hormonal imbalance leading to anovulation
3. C.
  Blocked fallopian tubes
4. D.
  Intrauterine adhesions preventing implantation
Answer and explanation
Q4 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Diagnosis of Pregnancy
Increased pulsation is felt through the lateral fornix at 8th week is called
1. A.
  Osiander's sign
2. B.
  Chadwick's sign
3. C.
  Goodell's sign
4. D.
  Piskacek's sign
Answer and explanation
Q5 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · End-of-Life Care
Which solution is commonly used for fluid replacement in burn patient?
1. A.
  Distilled water
2. B.
  Ringer's lactate
3. C.
  5% dextrose
4. D.
  Normal saline with glucose
Answer and explanation
Q6 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
What is the primary goal of post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)?
1. A.
  To cure HIV infection
2. B.
  To prevent HIV infection after potential exposure
3. C.
  To increase CD4 count immediately
4. D.
  To eliminate HIV antibodies
Answer and explanation
Q7 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Sensorineural Function
To measure intraocular pressure this procedure is done?
1. A.
  Caloric test
2. B.
  Keratometry
3. C.
  Tonometry
4. D.
  Visual acuity test
Answer and explanation
Q8 · Pharmacology · Antimicrobial Drugs
Which drugs are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV?
1. A.
  Zidovudine + Lamivudine
2. B.
  Acyclovir + Lamivudine
3. C.
  Doxycycline + Zidovudine
4. D.
  Chloroquine + Lamivudine
Answer and explanation
Q9 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Miscellaneous
A patient's random blood sugar (RBS) level is 40 mg/dl. Immediate management is to administer?
1. A.
  5% dextrose
2. B.
  25% dextrose
3. C.
  10 units human insulin
4. D.
  DNS
Answer and explanation
Q10 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
What does U=U mean in HIV prevention?
1. A.
  Undetectable = Untransmittable
2. B.
  Untraced = Unpreventable
3. C.
  Uninfected = Untreatable
4. D.
  Unnoticed = Uncurable
Answer and explanation
Q11 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Miscellaneous
Which statement about post-exposure prophylaxis is true?
1. A.
  It is effective even after 1 month of exposure
2. B.
  It is effective only if started within 72 hours
3. C.
  It has no side effects
4. D.
  It is lifelong
Answer and explanation
Q12 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
What does a high viral load in an HIV-positive patient indicate?
1. A.
  Effective ART response
2. B.
  Poor prognosis and active viral replication
3. C.
  Complete immune recovery
4. D.
  Latent infection only
Answer and explanation
Q13 · Nursing Education · Assessment and Evaluation Methodologies
AstroSat" is a space telescope launched by which country?
1. A.
  India
2. B.
  China
3. C.
  Russia
4. D.
  USA
Answer and explanation
Q14 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Infertility
Which hormone is typically measured during infertility investigations to assess ovarian reserve?
1. A.
  Prolactin
2. B.
  Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
3. C.
  Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
4. D.
  Testosterone
Answer and explanation
Q15 · Nursing Foundations · Elimination needs
A nurse is assessing the elimination needs of a patient with a new colostomy. Which action best demonstrates promoting self-care?
1. A.
  Performing all ostomy care for the patient
2. B.
  Limiting patient participation to avoid anxiety
3. C.
  Avoiding discussion on ostomy management
4. D.
  Encouraging the patient to observe and participate in ostomy care
Answer and explanation
Q16 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Infections and Infestations
When should ART be started in an HIV-positive child?
1. A.
  Only after symptoms appear
2. B.
  As soon as possible, regardless of symptoms
3. C.
  After age 5 years
4. D.
  Only after CD4 < 200
Answer and explanation
Q17 · Pharmacology · Antimicrobial Drugs
Which drug is commonly used in pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for HIV prevention?
1. A.
  Zidovudine
2. B.
  Tenofovir + Emtricitabine
3. C.
  Efavirenz
4. D.
  Nevirapine
Answer and explanation
Q18 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Abnormalities of the Puerperium
A 3rd day postpartum woman has a 100°F temperature and breast engorgement. Which nursing action would be appropriate?
1. A.
  Give antibiotics
2. B.
  Express breast milk
3. C.
  Stop breast feeding for 3 days
4. D.
  Advise against excessive breast feeding
Answer and explanation
Q19 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Oncology: Nursing Management in Cancer Care
Which opportunistic cancer is strongly associated with HIV/AIDS?
1. A.
  Leukemia
2. B.
  Kaposi's sarcoma
3. C.
  Lung cancer
4. D.
  Colon cancer
Answer and explanation
Q20 · Community Health Nursing · Epidemiology – Epidemiological Approaches and Processes
A key feature of the Pulse Polio program to ensure high coverage is the use of a Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM). What does the VVM indicate?
1. A.
  The number of doses remaining in the vial.
2. B.
  The cumulative heat exposure of the vaccine vial, indicating its potency.
3. C.
  The specific serotype of the poliovirus contained within the vaccine.
4. D.
  The expiration date of the vaccine, which is printed separately.
Answer and explanation
Q21 · General Knowledge · National Current Affairs
In November 2025, which of the following conferences highlighted India's telecom innovation and 6G vision?
1. A.
  Global Cyber Security Summit 2025
2. B.
  World Telecommunication Development Conference (WTDC-25)
3. C.
  Emerging Science, Technology and Innovation Conclave (ESTIC) 2025
4. D.
  International Bharat 6G Vision & Future Networks Summit 2025
Answer and explanation
Q22 · Reasoning · Direction Sense
Kavya travels 8 meters in North direction from a certain starting point. Then she turns right and travels for 12 meters. She again turns right and travels for 8 meters. Now at what distance and in which direction, she is from her starting point?
1. A.
  12 meters in East
2. B.
  12 meters in North
3. C.
  12 meters in West
4. D.
  12 meters in South
Answer and explanation
Q23 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Perioperative Concepts and Nursing Management
During a complex surgical procedure, the surgical team realizes a critical piece of equipment is malfunctioning. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse in charge of operation theatre supplies?
1. A.
  Replace the equipment after the procedure is complete
2. B.
  Attempt to fix the equipment during the procedure
3. C.
  Immediately inform the surgeon and provide a sterile backup
4. D.
  Ignore the issue and continue the procedure
Answer and explanation
Q24 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Infections and Infestations
Which HIV test is used for early detection in infants?
1. A.
  CD4 count
2. B.
  Western blot
3. C.
  RNA PCR
4. D.
  Tuberculin test
Answer and explanation
Q25 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Newborn Infants
A healthy newborn is found with mild jaundice 24 hours after birth. What is the best initial nursing action?
1. A.
  Administer intravenous fluids
2. B.
  Stop breastfeeding and notify the physician
3. C.
  Start phototherapy immediately
4. D.
  Continue regular feeding and monitor the jaundice.
Answer and explanation
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Q26 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Infections and Infestations
What is the preferred ART regimen for infants under 3 years old?
1. A.
  Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine
2. B.
  Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Lopinavir
3. C.
  Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Efavirenz
4. D.
  Stavudine + Didanosine + Nevirapine
Answer and explanation
Q27 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Infections and Infestations
Which test is used to detect HIV in newborns?
1. A.
  ELISA antibody test
2. B.
  Western blot
3. C.
  RNA PCR
4. D.
  CD4 count
Answer and explanation
Q28 · Reasoning · Classification (Odd One Out)
Find out the odd one out.?
1. A.
  Intelligent
2. B.
  Thrilled
3. C.
  Excited
4. D.
  Enthusiastic
Answer and explanation
Q29 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Newborn Infants
What is the duration of ARV prophylaxis for newborns exposed to HIV?
1. A.
  2 weeks
2. B.
  4 weeks
3. C.
  6 weeks
4. D.
  12 weeks
Answer and explanation
Q30 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
Which stage of HIV is characterized by opportunistic infections?
1. A.
  Acute infection
2. B.
  Asymptomatic stage
3. C.
  Symptomatic stage
4. D.
  AIDS stage
Answer and explanation
Q31 · Reasoning · Arrangements & Puzzles
In a line of girls, Rani is 10^(th) from the left and 12^(th) from the right. How many girls are in the line?
1. A.
  20
2. B.
  21
3. C.
  22
4. D.
  23
Answer and explanation
Q32 · Reasoning · Coding-Decoding
If TEMPLE is coded as ELPMET, then how will CHURCH be coded as?
1. A.
  HCURCH
2. B.
  HCRUCH
3. C.
  HOURHC
4. D.
  HCRUHC
Answer and explanation
Q33 · Pathology & Genetics · Clinical Pathology
What is the normal CD4 T-cell count in healthy adults?
1. A.
  200–400 cells/μL
2. B.
  400–800 cells/μL
3. C.
  800–1600 cells/μL
4. D.
  1600–2000 cells/μL
Answer and explanation
Q34 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Infections and Infestations
What is the primary goal of ART in HIV-infected children?
1. A.
  Cure HIV infection
2. B.
  Suppress viral load and maintain immune function
3. C.
  Eliminate antibodies
4. D.
  Prevent malaria co-infection
Answer and explanation
Q35 · Nursing Foundations · Promoting safety in health care environment
Which substance is used in a Red colored fire extinguisher?
1. A.
  Foam
2. B.
  Water
3. C.
  Wet Chemical
4. D.
  Carbon dioxide
Answer and explanation
Q36 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
Which of the following is NOT an AIDS-defining condition?
1. A.
  Pneumocystis pneumonia
2. B.
  Toxoplasmosis of the brain
3. C.
  Candidiasis of the esophagus
4. D.
  Streptococcal pneumonia
Answer and explanation
Q37 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Common Medical Procedures
During orogastric feeding in a neonate, the nurse observes coughing and cyanosis. What should be the nurse's immediate response?
1. A.
  Reposition the child and continue feeding slowly
2. B.
  Offer the infant a pacifier to calm down
3. C.
  Increase the feeding rate to complete faster
4. D.
  Stop the feeding and assess airway patency immediately
Answer and explanation
Q38 · Community Health Nursing · Respiratory Infections
DOTS therapy under tuberculosis control is given for how long in standard cases?
1. A.
  2 months
2. B.
  4 months
3. C.
  6 months
4. D.
  12 months
Answer and explanation
Q39 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
Which HIV diagnostic method detects viral RNA directly?
1. A.
  ELISA
2. B.
  Western blot
3. C.
  PCR
4. D.
  CD4 count
Answer and explanation
Q40 · Community Health Nursing · National Health Programs
Which component of NACP (National AIDS Control Program) helps reduce HIV-related stigma and discrimination?
1. A.
  Providing ART to all HIV-positive individuals
2. B.
  Conducting awareness campaigns
3. C.
  Developing new HIV vaccines
4. D.
  Increasing testing centers only
Answer and explanation
Q41 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
Which co-infections accelerate HIV disease progression and increase mortality?
1. A.
  Malaria and Dengue
2. B.
  Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C
3. C.
  Cholera and Typhoid
4. D.
  Influenza and Measles
Answer and explanation
Q42 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
Which stage of HIV infection is associated with latent infection?
1. A.
  Acute phase
2. B.
  Asymptomatic phase
3. C.
  Symptomatic phase
4. D.
  AIDS
Answer and explanation
Q43 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Medical and Surgical Illness Complicating Pregnancy
What is the recommendation for ARV treatment in HIV-positive pregnant women during labor?
1. A.
  Stop ART at delivery
2. B.
  Start ART 12 hours before delivery
3. C.
  Start ART as soon as possible during labor
4. D.
  Only after birth of child
Answer and explanation
Q44 · Nursing Foundations · Promoting safety in health care environment
What does the acronym RACE stand for, in the context of hospital fire safety policies?
1. A.
  Report, Act, Control, Elaborate
2. B.
  Rescue, Act, Contain, Exit
3. C.
  Run, Alarm, Call, Evacuate
4. D.
  Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish
Answer and explanation
Q45 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Normal Puerperium
All of the following statements are related to baby-friendly hospital practices, except?
1. A.
  Initiate breastfeeding within 1 hour and 30 minute
2. B.
  Have a written breastfeeding policy that is routinely communicated to all health care staff
3. C.
  Practice "rooming in" by allowing mothers and infants to remain together
4. D.
  New-born infants no food or drink other than breast milk unless medically indicated
Answer and explanation
Q46 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Neurologic Function
Status epilepticus is a continuous seizure that lasts more than?
1. A.
  30 minutes
2. B.
  15 minutes
3. C.
  45 minutes
4. D.
  1 hour
Answer and explanation
Q47 · Community Health Nursing · Surface Infections
What is the confirmatory test for HIV diagnosis after ELISA?
1. A.
  Western blot
2. B.
  CD4 count
3. C.
  RNA PCR
4. D.
  Chest X-ray
Answer and explanation
Q48 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms
Which statement is true regarding HIV-1 and HIV-2?
1. A.
  HIV-2 is more virulent than HIV-1
2. B.
  HIV-1 is more common globally than HIV-2
3. C.
  HIV-2 causes faster disease progression
4. D.
  Both are equally common worldwide
Answer and explanation
Q49 · Applied Anatomy · Nervous System
'Ape hand' deformity is due to compression of which nerve?
1. A.
  Radial Nerve
2. B.
  Median Nerve
3. C.
  Ulnar Nerve
4. D.
  Axillary Nerve
Answer and explanation
Q50 · English · Vocabulary
Synonym for word "FOSTERING"
1. A.
  Safeguarding
2. B.
  Nurturing
3. C.
  Neglecting
4. D.
  Ignoring
Answer and explanation
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Q51 · Applied Physiology · Endocrine system
Which hormone is most associated with the body's stress response?
1. A.
  Melatonin
2. B.
  Serotonin
3. C.
  Insulin
4. D.
  Cortisol
Answer and explanation
Q52 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Menopause
Which hormone decreases most rapidly after surgical menopause?
1. A.
  Thyroxine
2. B.
  Estrogen
3. C.
  Insulin
4. D.
  Progesterone
Answer and explanation
Q53 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
How long should post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) be continued after potential HIV exposure?
1. A.
  7 days
2. B.
  14 days
3. C.
  28 days
4. D.
  3 months
Answer and explanation
Q54 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
Recommended HIV follow-up testing schedule for healthcare workers after needle-stick injury is:
1. A.
  1 week, 2 weeks, 3 weeks
2. B.
  1 month, 3 months, 6 months
3. C.
  2 weeks, 2 months, 5 months
4. D.
  1 month, 6 months, 12 months
Answer and explanation
Q55 · Pharmacology · Antimicrobial Drugs
Which ARV drug is included to prevent mother-to-child transmission during breastfeeding?
1. A.
  Zidovudine
2. B.
  Nevirapine
3. C.
  Efavirenz
4. D.
  Stavudine
Answer and explanation
Q56 · Community Health Nursing · Surface Infections
What is the preferred first-line ART regimen for HIV-infected adults?
1. A.
  Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Efavirenz
2. B.
  Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Dolutegravir
3. C.
  Stavudine + Didanosine + Nevirapine
4. D.
  No treatment until CD4 less than 200 cells/mm3
Answer and explanation
Q57 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Medical and Surgical Illness Complicating Pregnancy
Which action reduces the risk of mother-to-child transmission of HIV during childbirth?
1. A.
  Stopping ART during labor
2. B.
  Scheduled Cesarean section (LSCS)
3. C.
  Avoiding ART and waiting for delivery
4. D.
  Early weaning of the newborn
Answer and explanation
Q58 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
What is the primary mode of HIV transmission in adults?
1. A.
  Blood transfusion
2. B.
  Needle sharing
3. C.
  Sexual contact
4. D.
  Mother-to-child transmission
Answer and explanation
Q59 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
What does the window period in HIV testing refer to?
1. A.
  Time from infection to first symptoms
2. B.
  Time from infection to antibody detection
3. C.
  Time from exposure to ART initiation
4. D.
  Time from ART start to viral suppression
Answer and explanation
Q60 · Pharmacology · Hormones & Related Drugs
Which non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill is initially taken twice a week for the first three months and then once a week thereafter?
1. A.
  Levonorgestrel (Postinor)
2. B.
  Centchroman (Saheli/Ormeloxifene)
3. C.
  Desogestrel (Cerazette)
4. D.
  Medroxyprogesterone Acetate
Answer and explanation
Q61 · Pharmacology · Miscellaneous
Which Indian vaccine is used for prevention of Cervical Cancer in India?
1. A.
  Cervavac
2. B.
  Cervarix
3. C.
  Gardasil
4. D.
  MMR vaccine
Answer and explanation
Q62 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms
What is the main target cell for HIV entry in the immune system?
1. A.
  CD8 T cells
2. B.
  CD4 T cells
3. C.
  B cells
4. D.
  Neutrophils
Answer and explanation
Q63 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
How often should HIV-positive individuals have their viral load tested?
1. A.
  Every month
2. B.
  Every 3-6 months
3. C.
  Every year
4. D.
  Every 5 years
Answer and explanation
Q64 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms
Which glycoprotein of HIV binds first to the CD4 receptor on host cells?
1. A.
  gp41
2. B.
  gp120
3. C.
  p24
4. D.
  p17
Answer and explanation
Q65 · Pharmacology · Antimicrobial Drugs
Which glycoprotein is targeted by entry inhibitors in HIV treatment?
1. A.
  gp120
2. B.
  gp41
3. C.
  p24
4. D.
  p7
Answer and explanation
Q66 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms
Which protein of HIV is detected in ELISA testing?
1. A.
  p17
2. B.
  p24
3. C.
  gp41
4. D.
  gp120
Answer and explanation
Q67 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
What is the significance of the window period in HIV testing?
1. A.
  Time between infection and first symptoms
2. B.
  Time between infection and antibody detection
3. C.
  Time from ART initiation to suppression
4. D.
  Time from exposure to CD4 recovery
Answer and explanation
Q68 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Central Nervous System
Generalized tonic-clonic seizures in childhood are called?
1. A.
  Petit mal seizures
2. B.
  Grand mal seizures
3. C.
  Bilateral seizures
4. D.
  Atonic seizures
Answer and explanation
Q69 · Pathology & Genetics · Clinical Pathology
What is the typical CD4:CD8 ratio in healthy individuals?
1. A.
  4:1
2. B.
  2:1
3. C.
  1:1
4. D.
  1:2
Answer and explanation
Q70 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Gas Exchange and Respiratory Function
Which opportunistic infection is strongly associated with CD4 count below 200?
1. A.
  Toxoplasmosis
2. B.
  Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
3. C.
  Tuberculosis
4. D.
  Kaposi's sarcoma
Answer and explanation
Q71 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Medical and Surgical Illness Complicating Pregnancy
Which intervention reduces the risk of HIV transmission from mother to child during childbirth?
1. A.
  Exclusive breastfeeding
2. B.
  Early initiation of ART in labor
3. C.
  Delivery by Cesarean section
4. D.
  Herbal therapy
Answer and explanation
Q72 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
Which type of HIV is associated with slower disease progression?
1. A.
  HIV-1
2. B.
  HIV-2
3. C.
  Both HIV-1 and HIV-2
4. D.
  None
Answer and explanation
Q73 · Pharmacology · Antimicrobial Drugs
Which HIV protein is targeted by entry-inhibiting drugs?
1. A.
  gp120
2. B.
  gp41
3. C.
  p24
4. D.
  p17
Answer and explanation
Q74 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms
Which HIV protein is involved in integration of viral DNA into host genome?
1. A.
  Protease
2. B.
  Integrase
3. C.
  Reverse transcriptase
4. D.
  gp120
Answer and explanation
Q75 · Applied Nutrition & Dietetics · Cookery Rules and Preservation of Nutrients
Brick dust is added to chili powder. This is an example of?
1. A.
  Food Adulteration
2. B.
  Food Decontamination
3. C.
  Food Purification
4. D.
  Food Refinement
Answer and explanation
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Q76 · Pharmacology · Antimicrobial Drugs
What is a major side effect of Tenofovir?
1. A.
  Hepatotoxicity
2. B.
  Nephrotoxicity
3. C.
  Neurotoxicity
4. D.
  Cardiotoxicity
Answer and explanation
Q77 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · General Characteristics of Microbes
Which microorganism is typically classified as a eukaryote?
1. A.
  Protozoa
2. B.
  Bacteria
3. C.
  Cyanobacterium
4. D.
  Viruses
Answer and explanation
Q78 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Miscellaneous
What is the normal CD8 T-cell count range?
1. A.
  100–300 cells/μL
2. B.
  300–600 cells/μL
3. C.
  450–750 cells/μL
4. D.
  800–1200 cells/μL
Answer and explanation
Q79 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
What is the CD4 count threshold below which AIDS is diagnosed?
1. A.
  < 800 cells/μL
2. B.
  < 500 cells/μL
3. C.
  < 400 cells/μL
4. D.
  < 200 cells/μL
Answer and explanation
Q80 · Quantitative Aptitude and Mathematics · Profit & loss
Solve the series... 50 + 20% of 50 = ?
1. A.
  100
2. B.
  90
3. C.
  80
4. D.
  60
Answer and explanation
Q81 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
PEP (Post-exposure prophylaxis) after needle-stick injury should be initiated within:
1. A.
  1 hour
2. B.
  24 hours
3. C.
  72 hours
4. D.
  7 days
Answer and explanation
Q82 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Miscellaneous
Which laboratory test is most important for monitoring ART effectiveness in adults?
1. A.
  Hemoglobin
2. B.
  Viral load test
3. C.
  CD4 count
4. D.
  Platelet count
Answer and explanation
Q83 · Reasoning · Number series
Identify the next number in the following series: 3, 6, 9, 10, 9, 18, 17, 34, ?
1. A.
  34
2. B.
  33
3. C.
  35
4. D.
  36
Answer and explanation
Q84 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Multiple Pregnancy, Amniotic Fluid Disorders, Abnormalities of Placenta and Cord
A patient is diagnosed with monozygotic monoamniotic twins. What is the most accurate explanation for this diagnosis?
1. A.
  Twins that develop from two fertilized eggs, each with separate placentas
2. B.
  Twins that develop from a single fertilized egg, each with a separate placenta
3. C.
  Twins that develop from a single fertilized egg, share both placenta and amniotic sac
4. D.
  Twins that develop from two fertilized eggs, sharing a placent
Answer and explanation
Q85 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Infections and Infestations
Which antiretroviral regimen is recommended for newborns exposed to HIV?
1. A.
  Zidovudine alone
2. B.
  Nevirapine alone
3. C.
  Zidovudine + Lamivudine combination
4. D.
  Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine combination
Answer and explanation
Q86 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · General Characteristics of Microbes
Which body fluid is most likely to transmit HIV through a needle-stick injury?
1. A.
  Saliva
2. B.
  Sweat
3. C.
  Blood
4. D.
  Tears
Answer and explanation
Q87 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
Which of the following is a common indicator of acute HIV disease progression to AIDS?
1. A.
  Hypertension
2. B.
  Weight gain
3. C.
  Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy
4. D.
  Increased CD4 count
Answer and explanation
Q88 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
Which of the following is a significant risk factor for acquiring HIV infection?
1. A.
  Sharing personal items like razors
2. B.
  Insect bites
3. C.
  Casual contact with HIV-positive person
4. D.
  Unprotected sexual intercourse
Answer and explanation
Q89 · Nursing Foundations · Procedures
A patient with urinary retention is prescribed intermittent catheterization every six hours. Which action by the nurse demonstrates proper technique to minimize infection risk?
1. A.
  Administer prophylactic antibiotics after every catheterization
2. B.
  Change the catheter insertion site for each insertion
3. C.
  Perform hand hygiene before and after catheter insertion
4. D.
  Insert antibiotic injections directly into the urethra
Answer and explanation
Q90 · Nursing Research & Statistics · Analysis of data
What is the average of the First 10 Natural Numbers?
1. A.
  5.5
2. B.
  4.5
3. C.
  5.0
4. D.
  6.0
Answer and explanation
Q91 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Gas Exchange and Respiratory Function
Which opportunistic infection is considered the most common cause of death in HIV/AIDS?
1. A.
  Malaria
2. B.
  Tuberculosis
3. C.
  Pneumocystis pneumonia
4. D.
  Cryptococcal meningitis
Answer and explanation
Q92 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Immunity
Which type of cells are the primary target for HIV infection?
1. A.
  B lymphocytes
2. B.
  CD4 T lymphocytes
3. C.
  Natural killer cells
4. D.
  Platelets
Answer and explanation
Q93 · Reasoning · Classification (Odd One Out)
Find the odd pair of words.?
1. A.
  Shopkeeper: Customer
2. B.
  Doctor: Patient
3. C.
  Lawyer: Client
4. D.
  Clerk: File
Answer and explanation
Q94 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Menstruation
During the menstrual cycle, what typically occurs when estrogen and progesterone levels drop at the end of the cycle?
1. A.
  The uterine lining thickens
2. B.
  Menstruation starts
3. C.
  Ovulation begins
4. D.
  The follicle matures
Answer and explanation
Q95 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Cardiovascular, Circulatory, and Hematologic Function
Swan-Ganz catheter is introduced to measure the?
1. A.
  Intra ocular pressure
2. B.
  Intra cranial pressure
3. C.
  Blood pressure
4. D.
  Central venous pressure
Answer and explanation
Q96 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Development
Which is an important sign of a healthy newborn?
1. A.
  Strong cry
2. B.
  Pale skin
3. C.
  Low temperature
4. D.
  No movement
Answer and explanation
Q97 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Orthopedic disorders
Ortolani is a test performed to find out?
1. A.
  Fractures
2. B.
  Bone injuries
3. C.
  Club foot
4. D.
  Congenital hip dislocation
Answer and explanation
Q98 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Normal Labor
The coordination between the fundal contraction and cervical dilatation is called?
1. A.
  Softening of the uterus
2. B.
  Hypertrophy
3. C.
  Increased vascularity
4. D.
  Polarity of uterus
Answer and explanation
Q99 · Community Health Nursing · National Health Programs
What is the key strategy under NACP to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV?
1. A.
  Promoting breastfeeding
2. B.
  Condom distribution
3. C.
  Providing ART to pregnant women
4. D.
  Increasing testing centers only
Answer and explanation
Q100 · Community Health Nursing · National Health Programs
When was DOTS strategy for tuberculosis introduced in India?
1. A.
  1980
2. B.
  1993
3. C.
  1997
4. D.
  2005
Answer and explanation

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