INI-CET papers

INI-CET 2026 question paper

INI-CET · 2026 · 199 questions · 180 minutes · 0.33 mark deducted per wrong answer

  • Medical & Surgical Nursing 59
  • Pharmacology 29
  • Pathology & Genetics 16
  • Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) 16
  • Applied Physiology 15
  • Applied Anatomy 14
  • Applied Microbiology & Infection control 13
  • Biochemistry & Nutrition 11
  • Obstetrics & Gynaecology 10
  • Nursing Research & Statistics 5
  • Community Health Nursing 5
  • Forensic Nursing & Indian laws 4
  • Mental Health Nursing 1
  • Applied Psychology 1

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  1. Q1 · Pharmacology · Miscellaneous

    A child presents with hypotension, respiratory depression, and pinpoint pupils. What is the most appropriate antidote?

    1. A.

      Naloxone

    2. B.

      Flumazenil

    3. C.

      Naltrexone

    4. D.

      Atropine

    Answer and explanation
  2. Q2 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Other Acute Problems

    A male patient reports painful vesicular eruptions on the penis. Based on this presentation, which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

    1. A.

      Haemophilus ducreyi

    2. B.

      Human papillomavirus

    3. C.

      Herpes simplex virus

    4. D.

      Treponema pallidum

    Answer and explanation
  3. Q3 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Perioperative Concepts and Nursing Management

    A patient is planned for elective colon surgery. What is the ideal timing for administration of prophylactic parenteral antibiotics?

    1. A.

      30 minutes before surgery

    2. B.

      2 hours before surgery

    3. C.

      4 hours before surgery

    4. D.

      1 hour before skin incision

    Answer and explanation
  4. Q4 · Pathology & Genetics · Systemic Pathology

    Which of the following vasculitis is NOT classified as a medium-vessel disease?

    1. A.

      Microscopic polyangiitis (MPA)

    2. B.

      Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)

    3. C.

      Buerger's disease (Thromboangiitis obliterans)

    4. D.

      Kawasaki disease

    Answer and explanation
  5. Q5 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Digestive and Gastrointestinal Function

    A 65-year-old male with diabetes mellitus presents with purulent rectal discharge and is diagnosed with fistula-in-ano. Surgical management is planned. Which of the following procedures is considered internal anal sphincter-preserving?

    1. A.

      LIFT

    2. B.

      FiLaC

    3. C.

      Fistulectomy

    4. D.

      VAAFT

    Answer and explanation
  6. Q6 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Other Acute Problems

    According to ATLS guidelines, which of the following represents the correct sequence of steps in primary trauma management? Steps: a. Airway management with cervical spine protection b. Circulation with hemorrhage control c. Disability assessment d. Catastrophic bleeding control Which sequence is correct?

    1. A.

      a → b → c → d

    2. B.

      b → a → d → c

    3. C.

      d → b → a → c

    4. D.

      d → a → b → c

    Answer and explanation
  7. Q7 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Newborn Infants

    A 3-hour-old newborn is found to have a blood glucose level of 38 mg/dL on routine screening. The neonate is asymptomatic. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

    1. A.

      A. Initiate 5% dextrose infusion intravenously

    2. B.

      A. Initiate 5% dextrose infusion intravenously

    3. C.

      C. Administer a 5% dextrose bolus and reassess

    4. D.

      D. Continue breastfeeding and reassess blood glucose after the next feed

    Answer and explanation
  8. Q8 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Gas Exchange and Respiratory Function

    A 45-year-old farmer from Northeast India presents with low-grade fever, progressive weight loss, night sweats, and productive cough. Chest CT reveals upper lobe cavitary lesions. Lung biopsy shows granulomatous inflammation with caseous necrosis and abundant histiocyte infiltration. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Aspergillosis

    2. B.

      Histoplasmosis

    3. C.

      Sarcoidosis

    4. D.

      Cryptococcosis

    Answer and explanation
  9. Q9 · Mental Health Nursing · Psychiatric Emergencies

    A 45-year-old recently divorced alcoholic expresses suicidal ideation. What is the next best step?

    1. A.

      Cognitive Behavioral Therapy and weekly outpatient visits

    2. B.

      Start antidepressant therapy

    3. C.

      Hospitalization and safety measures

    4. D.

      Monitor for recurrence

    Answer and explanation
  10. Q10 · Pharmacology · Antimicrobial Drugs

    What is the mechanism of action of Pretomanid under the BPaLM regimen?

    1. A.

      Inhibition of ATP synthase

    2. B.

      Inhibition of RNA polymerase

    3. C.

      Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis

    4. D.

      Inhibition of arabinoglycan synthesis

    Answer and explanation
  11. Q11 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Musculoskeletal Function

    An MRI of the ankle shows a whitish, irregular abnormality in the Achilles tendon. What is the most likely finding and its corresponding management?

    1. A.

      Thompson tests positive

    2. B.

      Steroid injection

    3. C.

      Plaster cast

    4. D.

      Surgical repair

    Answer and explanation
  12. Q12 · Pharmacology · General Pharmacology

    Which of the following is correctly matched (Anti-aging compound — Molecular pathway)?

    1. A.

      Resveratrol — mTOR inhibition

    2. B.

      Caloric restriction — Sirtuin (SIRT-1)

    3. C.

      Metformin — AMPK pathway

    4. D.

      Rapamycin — IGF-1/Insulin pathway

    Answer and explanation
  13. Q13 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Lipids

    1. Elevated serum triglyceride levels are observed in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

    1. A.

      1. Elevated serum triglyceride levels are observed in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

    2. B.

      A. Abetalipoproteinemia

    3. C.

      C. High fructose diet

    4. D.

      D. Nephrotic syndrome

    Answer and explanation
  14. Q14 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Proteins

    Which coenzyme is essential for carrying out transamination reactions in amino acid metabolism?

    1. A.

      Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)

    2. B.

      Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)

    3. C.

      Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)

    4. D.

      Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)

    Answer and explanation
  15. Q15 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Miscellaneous

    A patient presents with right iliac fossa pain for 48 hours. USG image (shown with Doppler) demonstrates a hyperaemic appendix-region structure with surrounding inflammatory changes. There is no free fluid or evidence of perforation on USG. What is the most appropriate next step?

    1. A.

      Direct surgical management (emergency appendicectomy)

    2. B.

      Contrast-enhanced CT (CECT) of the abdomen and pelvis

    3. C.

      USG-guided biopsy of the lesion

    4. D.

      USG-guided percutaneous drainage

    Answer and explanation
  16. Q16 · Pharmacology · Chemotherapy of Neoplastic Drugs

    Which of the following drug-receptor target pairings are correctly matched? 1. Trastuzumab — HER2 receptor 2. Sunitinib — HER1 (EGFR) 3. Gefitinib — HER1 (EGFR)

    1. A.

      Only 1 is correct

    2. B.

      1 and 3 are correct

    3. C.

      2 and 3 are correct

    4. D.

      All are correct

    Answer and explanation
  17. Q17 · Pharmacology · Drugs Acting on Central Nervous System

    Lamotrigine is most effective in which of the following seizure types?

    1. A.

      Absence seizures

    2. B.

      Tonic-clonic seizures

    3. C.

      Atonic seizures

    4. D.

      Myoclonic seizures

    Answer and explanation
  18. Q18 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Fluid and Electrolytes: Balance and Distribution

    A 28-year-old woman with severe anorexia is admitted for nutritional rehabilitation. Within 48 hours of initiating enteral feeding, she develops muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and respiratory distress. Which metabolic abnormality is most characteristically responsible?

    1. A.

      Hyponatremia

    2. B.

      Hypocalcemia

    3. C.

      Hypophosphatemia

    4. D.

      Hyperkalemia

    Answer and explanation
  19. Q19 · Pharmacology · Miscellaneous

    A 45-year-old chronic smoker is being counselled for smoking cessation therapy. Which of the following statements regarding nicotine replacement and pharmacotherapy is correct?

    1. A.

      Acidic beverages should be avoided 15 minutes before using nicotine gum to maximize absorption

    2. B.

      Nicotine patch provides superior efficacy compared to nicotine gum

    3. C.

      Bupropion is associated with more adverse effects than Varenicline

    4. D.

      Varenicline carries a black box warning for cardiovascular toxicity

    Answer and explanation
  20. Q20 · Applied Anatomy · Respiratory System

    In the labelled diagram of laryngeal intrinsic muscles, which labelled muscle is solely responsible for abduction of the vocal cords?

    1. A.

      Muscle labelled 'D (Posterior cricoarytenoid)

    2. B.

      Muscle labelled 'b' Transverse Arytenoid

    3. C.

      Muscle labelled 'c'-Oblique Arytenoid

    4. D.

      Muscle labelled A - Aryepiglottic muscle

    Answer and explanation
  21. Q21 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Oncology: Nursing Management in Cancer Care

    A patient presents with hypercalcemia due to malignancy. According to the correct sequence of management, what should be the first step?

    1. A.

      Administration of loop diuretics

    2. B.

      Intravenous rehydration with normal saline

    3. C.

      Administration of bisphosphonates

    4. D.

      Other supportive measures

    Answer and explanation
  22. Q22 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Neurologic Function

    . A trauma patient is evaluated using the GCS. The patient localizes to painful stimuli, produces incoherent sounds, and opens eyes only in response to pain. What is the total GCS score?

    1. A.

      6

    2. B.

      7

    3. C.

      8

    4. D.

      9

    Answer and explanation
  23. Q23 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Neurologic Function

    A patient with chronic alcoholism presents with severe memory problems. Which of the following features is most characteristic of Korsakoff syndrome?

    1. A.

      Inability to form new memories (anterograde amnesia)

    2. B.

      Loss of personal identity

    3. C.

      Impairment of unconscious (implicit) memory

    4. D.

      Confusion, unsteady gait, and eye movement paralysis

    Answer and explanation
  24. Q24 · Applied Anatomy · Nervous System

    During a lumbar puncture procedure, the spinal needle traverses several anatomical layers in a defined sequence before reaching the subarachnoid space. Given the structures listed below, which option correctly represents the order in which they are pierced? 1. Ligamentum flavum 2. Supraspinous ligament 3. Interspinous ligament 4. Dura mater 5. Subdural space 6. Arachnoid mater 7. Epidural space Which option correctly represents the order in which they are pierced?

    1. A.

      2 → 3 → 1 → 7 → 4 → 5 → 6

    2. B.

      2 → 3 → 7 → 1 → 4 → 5 → 6

    3. C.

      3 → 2 → 1 → 7 → 4 → 5 → 6

    4. D.

      2 → 1 → 3 → 4 → 7 → 5 → 6

    Answer and explanation
  25. Q25 · Applied Physiology · Reproductive system

    If a patient is on testosterone therapy, what changes can one see in LH and FSH levels?

    1. A.

      Increased LH, decreased FSH

    2. B.

      Decreased LH, increased FSH

    3. C.

      Increased LH, increased FSH

    4. D.

      Decreased LH, decreased FSH

    Answer and explanation
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  27. Q26 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Skin Disorders

    Which of the following is NOT a recognized diagnostic feature of Kawasaki disease?

    1. A.

      Purulent conjunctivitis

    2. B.

      Non-purulent (bilateral) conjunctivitis

    3. C.

      Cervical lymphadenopathy

    4. D.

      Fever lasting more than 5 days

    Answer and explanation
  28. Q27 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Musculoskeletal Function

    A 28-year-old male with bilateral femoral and tibial fractures and a chest wound presents with unstable blood pressure and tachycardia. After initial stabilization, what is the most appropriate initial management of his long bone fractures?

    1. A.

      Internal fixation of the femur with screws and external fixation of the tibia

    2. B.

      External fixation of the femur and internal fixation of the tibia with nailing

    3. C.

      External fixation of both femur and tibia

    4. D.

      External fixation, or screw/plating/nailing, depending on the surgical skill of the surgeon, which saves

    Answer and explanation
  29. Q28 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms

    A patient presents with fever, headache, and neck stiffness suggestive of meningitis. CSF examination is performed, and Nigrosin stain reveals encapsulated budding yeast cells. Which of the following organisms is the most likely causative agent?

    1. A.

      Aspergillus fumigatus

    2. B.

      Pneumocystis jirovecii

    3. C.

      Histoplasma capsulatum

    4. D.

      Cryptococcus neoformans

    Answer and explanation
  30. Q29 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms

    The virulence of Bacillus anthracis is mediated by two key plasmid-encoded factors. Which of the following is the correct biochemical composition?

    1. A.

      pXO1 poly-D-glutamate capsule

    2. B.

      pXO1 polysaccharide capsule

    3. C.

      pXO2 polysaccharide capsule

    4. D.

      pXO2 poly-D-glutamate capsule

    Answer and explanation
  31. Q30 · Applied Psychology · Cognitive Process

    Which statement correctly describes classical conditioning?

    1. A.

      Association between conditioned stimulus and conditioned response

    2. B.

      Association between unconditioned stimulus and unconditioned response

    3. C.

      Unconditioned stimulus produces a conditioned response after learning

    4. D.

      Conditioned stimulus triggers a conditioned response after learning

    Answer and explanation
  32. Q31 · Applied Anatomy · Circulatory & Lymphatic System

    Intercalated disc is composed of: 1. Cadherins 2. Desmosomes 3. Gap junctions 4. Tight junctions

    1. A.

      1, 2 and 3

    2. B.

      2, 3 and 4

    3. C.

      1, 3 and 4

    4. D.

      1,2, 3 and 4

    Answer and explanation
  33. Q32 · Nursing Research & Statistics · Research Approaches and Designs

    Assertion: In a nested case-control study, incidence rates can be derived from the parent cohort. Reason: Nested case-control studies have the ability to estimate relative risk accurately.

    1. A.

      Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

    2. B.

      Both assertion and reason are correct, but they are unrelated

    3. C.

      The assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect

    4. D.

      The assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct

    Answer and explanation
  34. Q33 · Pharmacology · Miscellaneous

    Match each poison with its characteristic feature: Column I — Poison Column II — Feature A. Carbon monoxide poisoning 1. Smell of bitter almond B. Organophosphorus poisoning 2. Pinpoint pupil with secretions C. Phosphorus poisoning 3. Cherry red discoloration D. Cyanide poisoning 4. Garlicky odour

    1. A.

      A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

    2. B.

      A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    3. C.

      A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

    4. D.

      A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

    Answer and explanation
  35. Q34 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Metabolic and Endocrine Function

    A patient with a thyroid nodule undergoes FNAC, which yields a result suggestive of follicular carcinoma. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

    1. A.

      Hemithyroidectomy

    2. B.

      Total thyroidectomy

    3. C.

      Radioactive iodine therapy

    4. D.

      Repeat FNAC

    Answer and explanation
  36. Q35 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Cardiovascular, Circulatory, and Hematologic Function

    A 58-year-old male presents with crushing chest pain radiating to the jaw. His ECG reveals ST- segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?

    1. A.

      Right coronary artery

    2. B.

      Posterior descending artery

    3. C.

      Left circumflex artery

    4. D.

      Anterior interventricular artery

    Answer and explanation
  37. Q36 · Applied Physiology · Nervous System

    Which of the following neurotransmitters is correctly matched with its synthesis site?

    1. A.

      Acetylcholine- substantia nigra

    2. B.

      Serotonin-Raphe nucleus

    3. C.

      Norepinephrine- Nucleus basalis of meynert

    4. D.

      Dopamine – Locus ceruleus

    Answer and explanation
  38. Q37 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Miscellaneous

    A patient is evaluated for a rare orofacial syndrome. The classical diagnostic triad of this condition is being reviewed. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Melkersson- Rosenthal syndrome triad?

    1. A.

      Lower motor neuron facial palsy

    2. B.

      Proptosis (forward displacement of the eyeball)

    3. C.

      Orofacial granulomatous oedema

    4. D.

      Fissured (scrotal) tongue

    Answer and explanation
  39. Q38 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Sensorineural Function

    A patient develops acute-onset severe unilateral hearing loss with no identifiable cause. Audiometry confirms sensorineural hearing loss. Which of the following pharmacological regimens is considered the first-line treatment for this condition?

    1. A.

      Intratympanic steroid injections

    2. B.

      Topical steroid ear drops

    3. C.

      Gentamicin combined with systemic steroids

    4. D.

      Oral prednisolone (systemic corticosteroids)

    Answer and explanation
  40. Q39 · Applied Anatomy · Digestive System

    A failure of fusion of the maxillary process with the medial nasal process during embryonic development results in which type of cleft anomaly?

    1. A.

      Oblique cleft lip

    2. B.

      Midline cleft lip

    3. C.

      Bilateral cleft

    4. D.

      Cleft palate

    Answer and explanation
  41. Q40 · Applied Physiology · Renal system

    Which physiological abnormality increases renin secretion?

    1. A.

      Reduced renal perfusion pressuren pressure

    2. B.

      Increased extracellular volume

    3. C.

      Elevated renal perfusion pressure

    4. D.

      Elevated sodium load to macula densa

    Answer and explanation
  42. Q41 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Integumentary Function

    Match each clinical sign in Column A with its corresponding dermatological condition in Column B:

    Column A (Clinical Sign) Column B (Condition)

    Positive Nikolsky sign Pemphigus vulgaris

    Pseudo-Nikolsky sign Stevens-Johnson syndrome

    False Nikolsky sign Bullous pemphigoid Cerebriform tongue Pemphigus vegetans

    Which of the following is the correct match?

    1. A.

      A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

    2. B.

      A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    3. C.

      A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

    4. D.

      A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

    Answer and explanation
  43. Q42 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Neuromuscular Disorders

    A child presents with a Gower sign. What does this finding indicate?

    1. A.

      Sensory neuropathy

    2. B.

      Proximal muscle weakness

    3. C.

      Joint laxity

    4. D.

      Distal muscle weakness

    Answer and explanation
  44. Q43 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Amenorrhea

    A 21-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhea. Examination shows an absent uterus, present breast development, and sparse pubic and axillary hair. What is the genetic etiology?

    1. A.

      MRKH

    2. B.

      Androgen insensitivity

    3. C.

      Turner's syndrome

    4. D.

      CAH

    Answer and explanation
  45. Q44 · Applied Physiology · Nervous System

    Emotional tone and prosody of speech is primarily controlled by which brain region?

    1. A.

      Posterior superior temporal gyrus

    2. B.

      Posterior inferior parietal gyrus

    3. C.

      Precentral gyrus

    4. D.

      Cingulate gyrus

    Answer and explanation
  46. Q45 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Carbohydrates

    Which of the following gives a negative Benedict's test?

    1. A.

      Sucrose

    2. B.

      Glucose

    3. C.

      Fructose

    4. D.

      Ascorbic acid

    Answer and explanation
  47. Q46 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Oncology: Nursing Management in Cancer Care

    A prostatic biopsy report reveals a Gleason score of 8 (4 + 4). What is the corresponding Grade Group classification of this tumor?

    1. A.

      Grade Group 2

    2. B.

      Grade Group 3

    3. C.

      Grade Group 4

    4. D.

      Grade Group 5

    Answer and explanation
  48. Q47 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Proteins

    Which of the following amino acid classifications are correctly matched? 1. Uncharged polar AA – Cysteine 2. Nonpolar AA – Histidine 3. Basic AA – Proline 4. Basic AA – Lysine

    1. A.

      A and B

    2. B.

      C and D

    3. C.

      B and C

    4. D.

      A and D

    Answer and explanation
  49. Q48 · Pathology & Genetics · Genetics

    Which molecular biotechnology is depicted in the image shown below:

    1. A.

      Microarray analysis

    2. B.

      In situ hybridization

    3. C.

      CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing system

    4. D.

      DNA sequencing

    Answer and explanation
  50. Q49 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Clinical Enzymology

    A novel anti-aging compound induces autophagy by inhibiting EP300 histone acetyltransferase, leading to deacetylation of autophagy-related proteins. Which known anti-aging agent works by the same mechanism?

    1. A.

      Rapamycin

    2. B.

      Metformin

    3. C.

      Resveratrol

    4. D.

      Spermidine

    Answer and explanation
  51. Q50 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Central Nervous System

    . A 5-year-old child presents with recurrent episodes since age 3, characterized by sudden behavioral arrest, repetitive picking movements of the right hand, and goosebumps. The child is unresponsive during episodes and has no memory of them afterward. Which of the following is correct? 1. Focal seizure with intact awareness 2. Focal seizure with impaired awareness 3. Frontal lobe semiology 4. Temporal lobe semiology

    1. A.

      1 and 3

    2. B.

      2 and 4

    3. C.

      2 and 3

    4. D.

      1 and 4

    Answer and explanation
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  53. Q51 · Community Health Nursing · Epidemiology – Epidemiological Approaches and Processes

    In a defined population, approximately 67% of all stroke cases are attributable to uncontrolled hypertension. If hypertension were adequately managed, 2/3rd of the stroke burden could be eliminated. This is an example of:

    1. A.

      Relative risk

    2. B.

      Attributable risk

    3. C.

      Population attributable risk

    4. D.

      Odds Ratio

    Answer and explanation
  54. Q52 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Diagnosis of Pregnancy

    Which of the following is classified as a probable sign of pregnancy?

    A. Hegar's sign

    B. Goodell's sign

    C. Braxton Hicks contractions

    D. Seitz sign

    1. A.

      A and B only

    2. B.

      A, B and C only

    3. C.

      B, C and D only

    4. D.

      A, B, C and D

    Answer and explanation
  55. Q53 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function

    Q2. A 32-year-old woman with a history of splenectomy presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset high-grade fever, vomiting, hypotension, and rapidly progressive septic shock. Her symptoms began 2 weeks after a minor febrile illness. Which organism is the most likely causative agent of this life-threatening condition?

    1. A.

      Escherichia coli

    2. B.

      Staphylococcus aureus

    3. C.

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

    4. D.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    Answer and explanation
  56. Q54 · Pharmacology · Miscellaneous

    An infant ingests a pesticide. Which drug reverses the acetylcholinesterase block?

    1. A.

      Pralidoxime

    2. B.

      Atropine

    3. C.

      Flumazenil

    4. D.

      Naloxone

    Answer and explanation
  57. Q55 · Pharmacology · Drugs Acting on Central Nervous System

    A 40-year-old female is scheduled for parotid surgery and is administered general Anaesthesia. Approximately 10 minutes into the procedure, the following findings are noted: • Rise in end-tidal CO₂ (EtCO₂) • Temperature: 104°F (40°C) • Heart rate: 150 bpm • Blood pressure: 180/110 mmHg What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Heat stroke

    2. B.

      Malignant hyperthermia

    3. C.

      Heat cramps

    4. D.

      Heat pyrexia

    Answer and explanation
  58. Q56 · Applied Physiology · Endocrine system

    Which of the following statements regarding hormones and their metabolic actions are correct? A. Insulin increases protein synthesis B. Thyroxine decreases basal metabolic rate C. Insulin decreases blood glucose levels D. Epinephrine increases glycogenolysis E. Glucagon increases gluconeogenesis

    1. A.

      A, B and C only

    2. B.

      A, C and D only

    3. C.

      A, C, D and E only

    4. D.

      All of the above

    Answer and explanation
  59. Q57 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Cardiovascular, Circulatory, and Hematologic Function

    . In which of the following conditions is cyanosis most likely to be a clinical finding?

    1. A.

      Eisenmenger syndrome

    2. B.

      Atrioventricular septal defect

    3. C.

      Partial anomalous pulmonary venous connection

    4. D.

      Advanced aortic stenosis

    Answer and explanation
  60. Q58 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Neurologic Function

    A 25-year-old college student presents with progressive headache, vomiting, and double vision. Examination reveals bilateral 6th nerve palsy and papilledema. CT brain shows hydrocephalus. CSF analysis reveals lymphocytic dominance, markedly low glucose, and elevated protein. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Viral meningitis

    2. B.

      Tubercular meningitis

    3. C.

      Fungal meningitis

    4. D.

      Bacterial meningitis

    Answer and explanation
  61. Q59 · Pathology & Genetics · Genetics

    Images show café au lait spots, Lisch nodules on the iris, and swelling near the eye. Identify the most likely syndrome:

    1. A.

      NF-1

    2. B.

      Tuberous sclerosis

    3. C.

      Sturge-Weber syndrome

    4. D.

      Von Hippel-Lindau disease

    Answer and explanation
  62. Q60 · Applied Anatomy · Musculoskeletal System

    Which muscle, as shown in the diagram, attaches to the cartilaginous portion of the Eustachian tube and also blends with the soft palate?

    1. A.

      Stylopharyngeus

    2. B.

      Tensor veli palatini

    3. C.

      Levator veli palatini

    4. D.

      Palatopharyngeus

    Answer and explanation
  63. Q61 · Pharmacology · Miscellaneous

    A 45-year-old chronic smoker is being counselled for smoking cessation therapy. Which of the following statements regarding nicotine replacement and pharmacotherapy is correct?

    1. A.

      Acidic beverages should be avoided 15 minutes before using nicotine gum to maximize absorption

    2. B.

      Nicotine patch provides superior efficacy compared to nicotine gum

    3. C.

      Bupropion is associated with more adverse effects than Varenicline

    4. D.

      Varenicline carries a black box warning for cardiovascular toxicity

    Answer and explanation
  64. Q62 · Applied Anatomy · Sensory Organs

    During tattooing, in which layer of the skin is the pigment/ink primarily deposited?

    1. A.

      Dermis

    2. B.

      Epidermis

    3. C.

      Subcutaneous tissue

    4. D.

      Muscle and vascular tissue

    Answer and explanation
  65. Q63 · Pharmacology · Miscellaneous

    Respiratory depression is NOT a feature of which of the following poisonings?

    1. A.

      Gelsemium

    2. B.

      Strychnine

    3. C.

      Opium

    4. D.

      Dhatura

    Answer and explanation
  66. Q64 · Community Health Nursing · Epidemiology – Epidemiological Approaches and Processes

    On investigating an outbreak, an epidemiologist plots an epidemic curve of acute febrile illness showing successive clusters separated by approximately 1 incubation period apart. Which of the following diseases shows this pattern of propagated spread?

    1. A.

      Measles

    2. B.

      Salmonellosis

    3. C.

      Typhoid

    4. D.

      Food poisoning

    Answer and explanation
  67. Q65 · Applied Physiology · Nervous System

    Which cerebral lobe primarily governs hand–eye coordination?

    1. A.

      Frontal

    2. B.

      Parietal

    3. C.

      Occipital

    4. D.

      Temporal

    Answer and explanation
  68. Q66 · Forensic Nursing & Indian laws · Forensic Toxicology

    A male traveller from Afghanistan is found dead in a hotel room. Autopsy shows the stomach packed with foreign substances. What is this phenomenon called?

    1. A.

      Body packing

    2. B.

      Body stuffing

    3. C.

      Body storage

    4. D.

      Body smuggle

    Answer and explanation
  69. Q67 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Neurologic Function

    The given disorders are associated with dystonia and basal ganglia involvement. Which one requires a fundamentally different treatment approach than the others?

    1. A.

      PKAN (Pantothenate kinase-associated neurodegeneration)

    2. B.

      PLAN (PLA2G6-associated neurodegeneration)

    3. C.

      Dopa-responsive dystonia

    4. D.

      Wilson disease

    Answer and explanation
  70. Q68 · Nursing Research & Statistics · Foundation of Nursing Research

    Which statement is correct regarding assessment of heterogeneity in meta-analysis?

    1. A.

      It directly quantifies and corrects for publication bias

    2. B.

      It evaluates the degree of variability in results across the combined studies

    3. C.

      It automatically removes confounding variables from individual studies

    4. D.

      It computes the incidence rate of the outcome across all populations

    Answer and explanation
  71. Q69 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Development

    A 20-month-old child walks independently without support, scribbles spontaneously, and appropriately follows and obeys simple commands. However, the child speaks only one meaningful word. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

    1. A.

      Reassure the parents and schedule a routine follow-up at 5 years of age

    2. B.

      Evaluate the child for autism spectrum disorder (ASD)

    3. C.

      Reassess in 3 months to allow for spontaneous improvement

    4. D.

      Suspect isolated speech delay and arrange a formal hearing assessment

    Answer and explanation
  72. Q70 · Nursing Research & Statistics · Research Approaches and Designs

    Health data from 15 nations investigating the relationship between per capita tobacco consumption and national COPD prevalence, revealing a strong positive correlation. Which study type best describes this?

    1. A.

      Case-control study

    2. B.

      Cohort study

    3. C.

      Cross-sectional study

    4. D.

      Ecological study

    Answer and explanation
  73. Q71 · Pharmacology · Antimicrobial Drugs

    Match the following antibiotics with their most commonly associated organism:

    1. Streptomycin a. Streptococcal pharyngitis

    2. Amoxicillin b. H. pylori

    1. Doxycycline c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

    4. Clarithromycin d. Chlamydia trachomatis

    1. A.

      1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b

    2. B.

      1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a

    3. C.

      1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d

    4. D.

      1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b

    Answer and explanation
  74. Q72 · Pharmacology · Antimicrobial Drugs

    A wound swab reveals gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, sensitive to Cefoxitin and Oxacillin. What is the drug of choice?

    1. A.

      Ceftriaxone

    2. B.

      Vancomycin

    3. C.

      Cloxacillin

    4. D.

      Amoxicillin/Clavulanate

    Answer and explanation
  75. Q73 · Pathology & Genetics · Genetics

    In DNA replication, which enzyme synthesizes RNA primers?

    1. A.

      Topoisomerase

    2. B.

      DNA polymerase II

    3. C.

      DNA polymerase III

    4. D.

      Primase

    Answer and explanation
  76. Q74 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Central Nervous System

    An 8-year-old boy presents with freckling in the armpits, soft skin tumors over the back, and learning difficulties. His father has similar skin lesions. The images show findings under the slit lamp. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2)

    2. B.

      Tuberous sclerosis complex

    3. C.

      Sturge-Weber syndrome

    4. D.

      Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)

    Answer and explanation
  77. Q75 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Carbohydrates

    Assertion: The structural diversity of glycans exceeds that of proteins. Reason: Glycans are not assembled using a genetic template and can form branched chains with variable linkages.

    1. A.

      A is true, but R is false

    2. B.

      A is false, but R is true

    3. C.

      Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

    4. D.

      Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

    Answer and explanation
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  79. Q76 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Clinical Enzymology

    Q8. Which of the following enzymes are active in the dephosphorylated state? 1. Glycogen synthase 2. Glycogen phosphorylase 3. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase 4. Phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK-2)

    1. A.

      1 and 2

    2. B.

      2 and 3

    3. C.

      3 and 4

    4. D.

      1 and 4

    Answer and explanation
  80. Q77 · Pharmacology · Drugs Acting on Central Nervous System

    Lamotrigine is most effective in which of the following seizure types?

    1. A.

      Absence seizures

    2. B.

      Tonic-clonic seizures

    3. C.

      Atonic seizures

    4. D.

      Myoclonic seizures

    Answer and explanation
  81. Q78 · Nursing Research & Statistics · Tools and Methods of Data Collection

    A new screening test is evaluated in a population of 1,000 individuals. Of these, 100 individuals are known to have the disease. The test correctly identifies 90 of the diseased individuals, while 50 non-diseased individuals are false positives. Based on the data below, what is the Positive Predictive Value (PPV) of this screening test? Screening Test Diseased Non-Diseased Test Positive 90 50 Test Negative 10 850 Total 100 900

    1. A.

      90%

    2. B.

      98%

    3. C.

      64%

    4. D.

      47%

    Answer and explanation
  82. Q79 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy

    A 34-year-old female, G2P1, with a history of pre-eclampsia in her previous pregnancy, comes for her first ANC visit at 12 weeks. What is the most appropriate intervention for prevention of pre- eclampsia in her current pregnancy?

    1. A.

      Low-dose aspirin

    2. B.

      Low-dose aspirin with Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH)

    3. C.

      Low calcium intake

    4. D.

      Low salt intake

    Answer and explanation
  83. Q80 · Pharmacology · General Pharmacology

    Q2. What is the mechanism of action of Resmetirom?

    1. A.

      Blockage at NPC1L1 transporter

    2. B.

      Activation of PPAR-γ

    3. C.

      Blockage of Acetyl Co-A carboxylase

    4. D.

      Stimulation of Thyroid Hormone Receptor-β

    Answer and explanation
  84. Q81 · Pharmacology · Drugs acting on Autonomic Nervoys system

    Q5. Which adrenergic or muscarinic receptor subtype is coupled to the Gs protein?

    1. A.

      M1 receptor

    2. B.

      M2 receptor

    3. C.

      Alpha adrenergic receptor

    4. D.

      Beta adrenergic receptor

    Answer and explanation
  85. Q82 · Applied Anatomy · Endocrine System

    Q4. Match each of the following organs with its correct embryological tissue of origin: Organ Embryological Origin

    A. Thyroid gland 1. Neural crest cells

    B. Adrenal medulla 2. Intermediate mesoderm

    C. Kidney 3. Endoderm

    1. A.

      A–3, B–1, C–2

    2. B.

      A–1, B–3, C–2

    3. C.

      A–2, B–1, C–3

    4. D.

      A–1, B–2, C–3

    Answer and explanation
  86. Q83 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Prolonged Labor, Obstructed Labor, Dystocia Caused by Fetal Anomalies

    A primigravida delivers the fetal head but the shoulders fail to deliver despite routine traction. What is the first step in management?

    1. A.

      McRoberts maneuver with suprapubic pressure

    2. B.

      Wood's corkscrew maneuver

    3. C.

      Rubin maneuver

    4. D.

      Zavanelli maneuver

    Answer and explanation
  87. Q84 · Pharmacology · General Pharmacology

    Calculate the Therapeutic Index of the given drug from the dose-response curve below:

    1. A.

      0.25

    2. B.

      0.75

    3. C.

      2

    4. D.

      4

    Answer and explanation
  88. Q85 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Musculoskeletal Function

    In femoral neck fracture management using the Garden classification, which treatment is indicated for an elderly patient?

    1. A.

      Cannulated screws

    2. B.

      Total hip replacement (THR)

    3. C.

      Hemiarthroplasty

    4. D.

      Conservative management

    Answer and explanation
  89. Q86 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Orthopedic disorders

    A 2-year-old child with a history of old knee injury now has varus deformity of the left knee. Deformity persists on flexion; blood report is normal. X-ray shows unilateral genu varum and angulated tibia. What is the diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Malunion of tibial fracture

    2. B.

      Osteofibrous dysplasia

    3. C.

      Rickets

    4. D.

      Focal fibrocartilaginous dysplasia

    Answer and explanation
  90. Q87 · Pharmacology · General Pharmacology

    All the following are ligand-gated ion channels EXCEPT:

    1. A.

      H2 receptor

    2. B.

      5-HT3 receptor

    3. C.

      GABA-A receptor

    4. D.

      Nicotinic receptor

    Answer and explanation
  91. Q88 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Digestive and Gastrointestinal Function

    Which of the following clinical features best distinguishes mechanical small bowel obstruction from paralytic ileus?

    1. A.

      Tachycardia

    2. B.

      Vomiting

    3. C.

      Abdominal distension

    4. D.

      Colicky abdominal pain

    Answer and explanation
  92. Q89 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Gas Exchange and Respiratory Function

    A female patient presents with recurrent epistaxis and a unilateral nasal cavity mass. CT scan reveals localised bony erosion. Among the following differential diagnoses, which is the LEAST likely cause of these findings?

    1. A.

      Inverted papilloma with malignant transformation

    2. B.

      Olfactory esthesioneuroblastoma

    3. C.

      Antrochoanal polyp

    4. D.

      Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

    Answer and explanation
  93. Q90 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Metabolic and Endocrine Function

    A 60-year-old patient presents with pruritus and obstructive jaundice. Physical examination reveals a palpable, non-tender gallbladder. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Choledocholithiasis

    2. B.

      Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas

    3. C.

      Cholangiocarcinoma

    4. D.

      Gallbladder carcinoma

    Answer and explanation
  94. Q91 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Newborn Infants

    A newborn presents with a skin lesion as shown. The infant is feeding normally, has no fever, hypotension, or shock signs. Which diagnosis is most likely?

    1. A.

      A. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

    2. B.

      B. Bullous pemphigoid

    3. C.

      B. Bullous pemphigoid

    4. D.

      D. Neonatal pemphigus due to transplacental antibody

    Answer and explanation
  95. Q92 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Central Nervous System

    A female child had normal developmental milestones until 6–8 months of age, after which she developed progressive regression in language, social interaction, and adaptive behavior. The regression was accompanied by loss of purposeful hand use replaced by stereotyped repetitive hand-wringing or clapping movements, and deceleration of head circumference growth. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Childhood disintegrative disorder

    2. B.

      Down syndrome

    3. C.

      Asperger syndrome

    4. D.

      Rett syndrome

    Answer and explanation
  96. Q93 · Forensic Nursing & Indian laws · Dummy

    A 16-year-old rape survivor presents at 16 weeks of pregnancy. All of the following are responsibilities of the examining doctor EXCEPT:

    1. A.

      Fetal tissues for DNA to be preserved

    2. B.

      Inform the police

    3. C.

      MTP if needed can be conducted by one doctor's opinion

    4. D.

      Parents' consent for medicolegal examination

    Answer and explanation
  97. Q94 · Pharmacology · Antimicrobial Drugs

    A patient is diagnosed with invasive mucormycosis following COVID-19 infection. Which of the following antifungal agents has NO activity against Mucor species and should be avoided?

    1. A.

      Voriconazole

    2. B.

      Isavuconazole

    3. C.

      Posaconazole

    4. D.

      Liposomal Amphotericin B

    Answer and explanation
  98. Q95 · Pathology & Genetics · Systemic Pathology

    On histopathological examination of the liver from a chronic alcoholic, the following image is observed. Which special stain is the best choice to confirm the diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Gomori Methenamine Silver (GMS)

    2. B.

      Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS)

    3. C.

      Masson Trichrome

    4. D.

      Gram stain

    Answer and explanation
  99. Q96 · Applied Physiology · General Physiology

    Q19. Which of the following statements regarding wound healing is correct?

    1. A.

      The exudative phase directly follows the inflammatory phase

    2. B.

      Type I collagen is deposited in early wound healing in a random haphazard manner

    3. C.

      Angiogenesis occurs during the proliferative phase

    4. D.

      Type III collagen replaces Type I collagen in a 3:1 ratio

    Answer and explanation
  100. Q97 · Pathology & Genetics · Systemic Pathology

    Histopathological examination of cardiac tissue from a post-MI patient shows a predominant neutrophilic infiltrate. This finding corresponds to which post-infarction time window?

    1. A.

      2–3 months

    2. B.

      12–24 hours

    3. C.

      1–3 days

    4. D.

      7–10 days

    Answer and explanation
  101. Q98 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Neurologic Function

    What causes the resting tremors in Parkinson's disease?

    1. A.

      Loss of inhibition of globus externa

    2. B.

      Loss of inhibition of globus interna

    3. C.

      Excitation of globus interna

    4. D.

      Excitation of globus externa

    Answer and explanation
  102. Q99 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Miscellaneous

    Match each of the following clinical conditions with its most appropriate diagnostic investigation: Clinical Condition Investigation A. Pancreatic pseudocyst 1. FNAC B. Thyroid nodule 2. MRCP C. Prostate cancer 3. PET scan D. Obstructive jaundice 4. CT scan Which of the following is the correct match?

    1. A.

      A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

    2. B.

      A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

    3. C.

      A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

    4. D.

      A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

    Answer and explanation
  103. Q100 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Population Dynamics and Control of Conception

    Which of the following statement is correct with respect to the Pearl Index?

    1. A.

      Number of accidental pregnancies per 100 woman-years of contraceptive use

    2. B.

      Number of accidental pregnancies in 100 women using a contraceptive for 1 year

    3. C.

      Number of live births per 100 woman-years

    4. D.

      Number of pregnancies including abortions per 100 couples

    Answer and explanation
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  105. Q101 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Cardiovascular, Circulatory, and Hematologic Function

    A patient presents with Hb 8 g/dL, MCV 62 fL, and low serum ferritin. Which type of anemia is most likely?

    1. A.

      Sideroblastic anemia

    2. B.

      Megaloblastic anemia

    3. C.

      Iron deficiency anemia

    4. D.

      Aplastic anemia

    Answer and explanation
  106. Q102 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms

    Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing of virus and associated malignancy?

    1. A.

      CMV — Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

    2. B.

      HTLV-1 — Adult T-cell lymphoma

    3. C.

      EBV — Burkitt lymphoma

    4. D.

      HHV-8 — Kaposi sarcoma

    Answer and explanation
  107. Q103 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Infections of the Individual Pelvic Organs

    A female presents with greenish frothy discharge; whiff test and Amsel’s criteria are negative. What microscopy feature is expected?

    1. A.

      Motile flagellates

    2. B.

      Pseudohyphae

    3. C.

      Clue cells

    4. D.

      Gram-negative diplococci

    Answer and explanation
  108. Q104 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Digestive and Gastrointestinal Function

    According to the American Association for the Surgery of Trauma (AAST) colon injury grading scale, how is a colonic laceration involving more than 50% of the bowel wall circumference without complete transection classified?

    1. A.

      Grade II

    2. B.

      Grade III

    3. C.

      Grade IV

    4. D.

      Grade V

    Answer and explanation
  109. Q105 · Community Health Nursing · Concepts of Community Health and Community Health Nursing

    Calculate the Odds Ratio with the following data: Cancer No Cancer Smoking 80 20 No Smoking 40 60

    1. A.

      B. 8

    2. B.

      C. 10

    3. C.

      D. 12

    Answer and explanation
  110. Q106 · Applied Physiology · Sensory organs

    Which sensory receptor generates a hyperpolarizing receptor potential upon stimulation?

    1. A.

      Visual receptor (rods/cones)

    2. B.

      Gustatory receptor

    3. C.

      Olfactory receptor

    4. D.

      Auditory receptor

    Answer and explanation
  111. Q107 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Digestive and Gastrointestinal Function

    On defecography, a rectocele is considered clinically significant when there is anterior bulging of the rectal wall into the posterior vaginal wall measuring more than:

    1. A.

      1 cm

    2. B.

      2 cm

    3. C.

      3 cm

    4. D.

      4 cm

    Answer and explanation
  112. Q108 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Perioperative Concepts and Nursing Management

    During laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, what is the minimum distance of dissection required below the inguinal ligament to adequately expose the myopectineal orifice?

    1. A.

      0.5 cm

    2. B.

      1 cm

    3. C.

      2 cm

    4. D.

      4 cm

    Answer and explanation
  113. Q109 · Pharmacology · Miscellaneous

    Which of the following statements regarding the HPV vaccine is correct?

    1. A.

      One dose can be given instead of two

    2. B.

      Live HPV vaccine is 100% protective for all HPV variants

    3. C.

      Primary target age is 9–14 years

    4. D.

      90% of 15-year-old girls to be vaccinated

    Answer and explanation
  114. Q110 · Pathology & Genetics · Systemic Pathology

    On histopathological examination of the gastro-esophageal junction, the following image is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Low-grade dysplasia

    2. B.

      Squamous cell carcinoma

    3. C.

      Adenocarcinoma

    4. D.

      Barrett's esophagus

    Answer and explanation
  115. Q111 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Insulin, Glucose Homeostasis & Diabetes Mellitus

    Following a bolus administration of insulin, which of the following occurs?

    1. A.

      Glucose uptake into the liver via GLUT 4

    2. B.

      Glucose uptake into muscle via GLUT 4

    3. C.

      Glucose uptake into muscle via GLUT 2

    4. D.

      Glucose uptake into the liver via GLUT 2

    Answer and explanation
  116. Q112 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Lipids

    Q6. Match the following:

    1. Most essential fatty acid a. Safflower oil

    1. Amino acid (AA) score b. Protein scoring system

    3. Oil rich in essential fatty acid c. Protein quality + digestibility

    4. Net Protein Utilization (NPU) d. Linoleic acid

    1. A.

      1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b

    2. B.

      1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a

    3. C.

      1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c

    4. D.

      1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c

    Answer and explanation
  117. Q113 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Review of Specimen Collection

    Q3. Which of the following reagents is used for the digestion and decontamination of a sputum sample collected for tuberculosis diagnosis?

    1. A.

      HCl with NAC

    2. B.

      H₂SO₄ with NAC

    3. C.

      HNO₃ with NALC

    4. D.

      NaOH with NALC

    Answer and explanation
  118. Q114 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Urinary Tract Function

    An elderly female patient presents to the emergency department with acute onset left flank pain radiating to the groin. What is the most appropriate imaging protocol for initial evaluation?

    1. A.

      Direct MRI of the abdomen and pelvis

    2. B.

      Ultrasound of the abdomen followed by CT if inconclusive

    3. C.

      Plain X-ray of the abdomen followed by CT urogram

    4. D.

      Non-contrast CT (NCCT) followed by contrast-enhanced CT (CECT)

    Answer and explanation
  119. Q115 · Pharmacology · General Pharmacology

    Identify the type of elimination kinetics represented in the given graph:

    1. A.

      First-order kinetics

    2. B.

      Zero-order kinetics

    3. C.

      Nonlinear kinetics

    4. D.

      Saturation kinetics

    Answer and explanation
  120. Q116 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms

    An elderly immunocompromised patient presents with blood-stained nasal discharge and a black necrotic eschar covering the right nasal cavity, hard palate, and nasal turbinates. Histopathology reveals broad aseptate hyphae. Which organism is the most common causative agent of this life-threatening condition?

    1. A.

      Candida albicans

    2. B.

      Cryptococcus neoformans

    3. C.

      Aspergillus fumigatus

    4. D.

      Rhizopus species

    Answer and explanation
  121. Q117 · Pathology & Genetics · Genetics

    An elderly patient dies, and an autopsy reveals neuritic plaques in the brain. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Alzheimer’s disease

    2. B.

      Parkinson’s disease

    3. C.

      Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

    4. D.

      Huntington’s disease

    Answer and explanation
  122. Q118 · Pharmacology · Miscellaneous

    After ingesting a liquid, a patient presents with pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, excessive salivation, bradycardia, sweating, and lacrimation. What is the treatment of choice?

    1. A.

      Pralidoxime

    2. B.

      Atropine

    3. C.

      Flumazenil

    4. D.

      Naloxone

    Answer and explanation
  123. Q119 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Miscellaneous

    . Which of the following is least likely to be considered a major independent risk factor for falls in the elderly?

    1. A.

      Muscle weakness (Sarcopenia)

    2. B.

      Hearing impairment

    3. C.

      Advanced age

    4. D.

      Arthritis

    Answer and explanation
  124. Q120 · Pharmacology · Drugs Acting on Central Nervous System

    Which of the following drugs is classified as a novel antidepressant?

    1. A.

      Trazodone

    2. B.

      Vilazodone

    3. C.

      Blonanserin

    4. D.

      Etizolam

    Answer and explanation
  125. Q121 · Pharmacology · Gastrointestinal Drugs

    In which type of constipation are stimulant laxatives contraindicated or should be avoided?

    1. A.

      Spastic constipationation

    2. B.

      Habitual constipation

    3. C.

      Atonic constipation

    4. D.

      Post-operative constipation

    Answer and explanation
  126. Q122 · Pharmacology · Miscellaneous

    Which instruction is correct for a patient using nicotine replacement therapy?

    1. A.

      Gums are more effective than lozenges

    2. B.

      Patient should avoid liquids like tea or coffee 15 minutes before using gum or lozenge

    3. C.

      Correct timing of doses

    4. D.

      Proper storage of nicotine products

    Answer and explanation
  127. Q123 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Neurologic Function

    In Myasthenia Gravis, why does repetitive nerve stimulation show a decremental response?

    1. A.

      Decreased release of acetylcholine from the presynaptic terminal

    2. B.

      Increased degradation of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase

    3. C.

      Reduced number of functional acetylcholine receptors at the postsynaptic membrane

    4. D.

      Autoantibodies blocking presynaptic calcium channels

    Answer and explanation
  128. Q124 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Fluid and Electrolytes: Balance and Distribution

    Match the following:

    1. Metabolic acidosis a. Hyperventilation

    2. Metabolic alkalosis b. Bronchopneumonia

    3. Respiratory acidosis c. Pyloric stenosis

    4. Respiratory alkalosis d. Glycol poisoning

    1. A.

      1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a

    2. B.

      1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

    3. C.

      1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d

    4. D.

      1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

    Answer and explanation
  129. Q125 · Applied Anatomy · Circulatory & Lymphatic System

    Assertion (A): In a patient with scrotal swelling, examination of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes should always be performed. Reason (R): Most lymphatic drainage from scrotal skin goes to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. Choose the correct option:

    1. A.

      Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

    2. B.

      Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

    3. C.

      A is true, but R is false

    4. D.

      A is false, but R is true

    Answer and explanation
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  131. Q126 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Lipids

    11. A newborn presents with craniofacial abnormalities, severely reduced muscle tone, and seizures. Biochemical analysis reveals elevated very long chain fatty acids in serum. What is the most likely underlying cause?

    1. A.

      Mitochondrial inheritance

    2. B.

      Lysosomal storage disorder

    3. C.

      Peroxisomal biogenesis defect

    4. D.

      Simultaneously activate multiple tumor suppressor genes

    Answer and explanation
  132. Q127 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms

    Which of the following statements are true about diphtheria toxin? A. It inhibits EF-2 B. It is an A-B type exotoxin C. It has particular affinity for myocardial and nervous tissue D. Toxin is produced only by strains carrying a plasmid Choose the correct answer:

    1. A.

      A and C

    2. B.

      A, B and C

    3. C.

      All are correct

    4. D.

      B and D

    Answer and explanation
  133. Q128 · Applied Physiology · Renal system

    Which structure in the nephron functions as the counter-current multiplier to help concentrate urine?

    1. A.

      Thick ascending loop of Henle

    2. B.

      Thin ascending loop of Henle

    3. C.

      Collecting duct

    4. D.

      Vasa recta

    Answer and explanation
  134. Q129 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Shock and Multisystem Failure

    Q5. A female presents with high grade fever, diffuse erythematous rash and hypotension. She is currently menstruating and using tampoons. The toxin responsible acts by?

    1. A.

      MHC class I molecule only

    2. B.

      CD4 receptor only

    3. C.

      B-cell receptor and IgG

    4. D.

      Vβ region of the T-cell receptor and MHC class II molecule

    Answer and explanation
  135. Q130 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Disinfection and Sterilization

    The image shown depicts a piece of sterilization equipment. Which of the following statements regarding its sterilization properties is INCORRECT?

    1. A.

      It is a method of moist heat sterilization operating above 100°C

    2. B.

      Bowie-Dick test positive

    3. C.

      Prions are completely destroyed at 121°C for 15 minutes

    4. D.

      It is commonly used for sterilizing culture media

    Answer and explanation
  136. Q131 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms

    A 38-year-old man with advanced HIV infection (CD4 count: 60 cells/mm³) presents with chronic watery diarrhea for 2 months, significant weight loss, intermittent fever, and fatigue. Colonoscopy is performed, and biopsy from the colonic mucosa demonstrates trophozoites with RBCs. What is the most likely causative organism?

    1. A.

      Giardia lamblia

    2. B.

      Cryptococcus neoformans

    3. C.

      Cryptosporidium parvum

    4. D.

      Entamoeba histolytica

    Answer and explanation
  137. Q132 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Neurologic Function

    Which features help distinguish central nystagmus from peripheral nystagmus?

    1. A.

      Direction and duration

    2. B.

      Latency

    3. C.

      Fatigue

    4. D.

      All of the above

    Answer and explanation
  138. Q133 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Urinary Tract Function

    A 12-year-old presents with hypertension and hematuria. Serum C3 is raised. Renal biopsy shows subepithelial hump deposits on EM. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Goodpasture syndrome

    2. B.

      Membranous glomerulonephritis

    3. C.

      Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)

    4. D.

      Minimal change disease

    Answer and explanation
  139. Q134 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Metabolic and Endocrine Function

    A 15-year-old boy presents with hypertension and salt-water retention. He is suspected to have 17-alpha hydroxylase deficiency. What is the expected serological profile?

    1. A.

      High mineralocorticoid, high cortisol, high androgen

    2. B.

      High mineralocorticoid, high cortisol, low androgen

    3. C.

      High mineralocorticoid, low cortisol, low androgen

    4. D.

      Low mineralocorticoid, low cortisol, low androgen

    Answer and explanation
  140. Q135 · Applied Physiology · Sensory organs

    What is the expected amplitude of accommodation in a healthy child?

    1. A.

      2D

    2. B.

      5D

    3. C.

      14D

    4. D.

      25D

    Answer and explanation
  141. Q136 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Integumentary Function

    Q1. A patient presents with focal hair loss accompanied by pruritus and scalp scaling. Which of the following treatments is most suitable?

    1. A.

      Methotrexate

    2. B.

      Topical corticosteroids

    3. C.

      Oral antibiotics

    4. D.

      Oral antifungals

    Answer and explanation
  142. Q137 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Cardiovascular, Circulatory, and Hematologic Function

    A patient presents to the emergency room with breathlessness. Cardiac causes are suspected but need to be differentiated from obstructive lung disease. Which of the following features is more characteristic of heart failure?

    1. A.

      Chest tightness

    2. B.

      Not able to take deep breath

    3. C.

      Air hunger

    4. D.

      Intermittent wheezing

    Answer and explanation
  143. Q138 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Skin Disorders

    An infant presents with pruritic lesions distributed over the hands, feet, and periumbilical region. Which of the following diagnoses best fits this clinical picture?

    1. A.

      Atopic dermatitis

    2. B.

      Bullous impetigo

    3. C.

      Scabies

    4. D.

      Eczema

    Answer and explanation
  144. Q139 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Cardiovascular, Circulatory, and Hematologic Function

    A 38-year-old male presents with sudden onset palpitations. He has no known comorbidities and his vitals are stable. ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves and a ventricular rate of 130 beats per minute. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Multifocal atrial tachycardia

    2. B.

      Atrial fibrillation

    3. C.

      Atrial flutter

    4. D.

      Supraventricular tachycardia

    Answer and explanation
  145. Q140 · Applied Physiology · Digestive system

    During oral rehydration therapy in diarrhoea, which transporter is most active in promoting fluid absorption?

    1. A.

      CFTR

    2. B.

      NHE

    3. C.

      SGLT1

    4. D.

      Na+-K+ ATPase

    Answer and explanation
  146. Q141 · Applied Physiology · Renal system

    In a graph of glomerular filterability vs. effective molecular radius, if X and Y are two molecules, which statement is correct?

    1. Y has more filterability than X

    2. Y has more filterability than Z

    3. X has less filterability than Y

    4. X represents positively charged molecules

    A. 1 and 2

    B. 2 and 3

    C. 3 and 4

    D. 1 and 4

    Answer: C

    1. A.

      1 and 2

    2. B.

      2 and 3

    3. C.

      3 and 4

    4. D.

      1 and 4

    Answer and explanation
  147. Q142 · Applied Physiology · Renal system

    Damage to the glomerular capillary wall causes which of the following to appear in urine?

    1. A.

      Uric acid

    2. B.

      Glucose

    3. C.

      Ketones

    4. D.

      Proteins

    Answer and explanation
  148. Q143 · Pathology & Genetics · Systemic Pathology

    A patient with long-standing chronic inflammatory disease develops systemic amyloidosis. Which amyloid protein subtype is characteristically deposited?

    1. A.

      ATTR

    2. B.

      Abeta2m

    3. C.

      AL

    4. D.

      AA

    Answer and explanation
  149. Q144 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Disorders of Respiratory System

    A 12-year-old child presents with mild fever, runny nose, sore throat, and cough for 3 days. Clinical examination is consistent with an upper respiratory tract infection (URTI). There is no respiratory distress, oxygen desaturation, or focal chest findings. What is the most appropriate next step regarding imaging?

    1. A.

      No further radiological investigation is required

    2. B.

      Digital chest X-ray

    3. C.

      Plain CT chest

    4. D.

      HRCT chest

    Answer and explanation
  150. Q145 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Other Acute Problems

    Following an explosion, a person sustained burns to the face and chest. What type of blast injury is this?

    1. A.

      Primary blast injury

    2. B.

      Secondary blast injury

    3. C.

      Tertiary blast injury

    4. D.

      Quaternary blast injury

    Answer and explanation
  151. Q146 · Applied Physiology · Circulatory & Lymphatic system

    Reason for biphasic flow in right coronary artery?

    1. A.

      Increased aortic pressure

    2. B.

      Increased right ventricular mass

    3. C.

      High pressure in right ventricle

    4. D.

      Low pressure in right ventricle

    Answer and explanation
  152. Q147 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Miscellaneous

    Match the following conditions with their hormonal profiles:

    Condition Hormonal Profile

    1. PCOS A. Normal FSH, Normal LH, Normal Estradiol - B. Decreased FSH, Decreased LH, Decreased

    2. Primary Ovarian Failure Estradiol - C. Increased LH, Normal to Low FSH (High

    3. Asherman Syndrome LH:FSH ratio)

    4. Sheehan Syndrome -D. Markedly Increased FSH, Low Estradiol

    1. A.

      1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

    2. B.

      1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

    3. C.

      1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

    4. D.

      1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

    Answer and explanation
  153. Q148 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Musculoskeletal Function

    A 30-year-old female post-RTA has persistent pain uncontrolled by analgesics. Compartment pressure is 90 mmHg with absent pulse. What is the treatment?

    1. A.

      Emergency fasciotomy

    2. B.

      Observation

    3. C.

      Increase IV analgesics

    4. D.

      External fixation

    Answer and explanation
  154. Q149 · Pathology & Genetics · Genetics

    Which statement correctly describes incomplete penetrance?

    1. A.

      All children of an affected parent will be clinically affected

    2. B.

      The disease will not manifest in any individual of the next generation

    3. C.

      Multiple individuals in one generation are affected but the next generation is entirely spared

    4. D.

      Alternate generations of pedigree are affected by the condition

    Answer and explanation
  155. Q150 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Disorders of Cardiovascular System

    following congenital heart diseases is most likely responsible for this clinical presentation?

    1. A.

      Atrioventricular septal defect

    2. B.

      Severe mitral stenosis

    3. C.

      Large patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

    4. D.

      Peripheral vascular disease

    Answer and explanation
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  157. Q151 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Miscellaneous

    A patient is found to have a dark black lesion on the plantar surface of the foot. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

    Answer: C

    1. A.

      KOH mount

    2. B.

      Gram stain

    3. C.

      Skin biopsy

    4. D.

      Tzanck smear

    Answer and explanation
  158. Q152 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Oncology: Nursing Management in Cancer Care

    What is the fundamental surgical principle underlying TME in the operative management of rectal cancer?

    1. A.

      Excision of only the peritumoral fat surrounding the tumor

    2. B.

      Routine resection of the pelvic autonomic nerves

    3. C.

      Ligation of the internal iliac artery

    4. D.

      En bloc removal of the entire mesorectum as a single intact unit

    Answer and explanation
  159. Q153 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Genetic Disorders

    A neonate presents with prolonged neonatal jaundice, an umbilical hernia, and generalized hypotonia. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Galactosemia

    2. B.

      Down syndrome

    3. C.

      Biliary atresia

    4. D.

      Congenital hypothyroidism

    Answer and explanation
  160. Q154 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Musculoskeletal Function

    A proximal humerus fracture is classified using Neer's classification. Which surgical option is most appropriate for a 4-part fracture in a young patient?

    1. A.

      Humerus nailing

    2. B.

      Humerus plating

    3. C.

      Hanging cast/K-wires

    4. D.

      Shoulder hemiarthroplasty

    Answer and explanation
  161. Q155 · Pharmacology · Antimicrobial Drugs

    Q9. Regarding ESBL-producing organisms and their treatment, which of the following statements are correct?

    1. 1st generation cephalosporins such as Cefazolin retain activity against ESBL producers, unlike 3rd generation

    2. Carbapenems have proven clinical efficacy against ESBL-producing organisms

    3. The beta-lactamase enzyme responsible for ESBL resistance is encoded on transferable plasmids

    4. Piperacillin-Tazobactam is a reliable and effective alternative to Carbapenems

    1. A.

      1, 2, and 4 only

    2. B.

      2, 3, and 4 only

    3. C.

      1, 2, and 3 only

    4. D.

      1, 2, 3, and 4 all

    Answer and explanation
  162. Q156 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Oncology: Nursing Management in Cancer Care

    A young patient presents with recurrent fever and constitutional symptoms. Evaluation reveals a mediastinal mass and biopsy confirms lymphoma. In the staging system, 'X' is mentioned. What does 'X' denote?

    1. A.

      Extranodal spread of disease

    2. B.

      Bulky or large tumor mass

    3. C.

      Presence of systemic symptoms

    4. D.

      Tumor present on both sides of the diaphragm

    Answer and explanation
  163. Q157 · Pathology & Genetics · Clinical Pathology

    A patient diagnosed with beta-thalassemia major is being evaluated. Which of the following is characteristic of this condition?

    1. A.

      Iron overload

    2. B.

      Leukopoiesis

    3. C.

      Ineffective hematopoiesis

    4. D.

      Intravascular hemolysis

    Answer and explanation
  164. Q158 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Cardiovascular, Circulatory, and Hematologic Function

    Which of the following electrolyte or metabolic abnormalities is NOT a component of the lethal triad associated with massive blood transfusion?

    1. A.

      Acidosis

    2. B.

      Hypothermia

    3. C.

      Coagulopathy

    4. D.

      Hyponatremia

    Answer and explanation
  165. Q159 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Central Nervous System

    A child presents with fever, altered level of consciousness, and signs of meningeal irritation. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals the following findings: • Cell differential: Predominantly lymphocytes • Protein: Elevated • Glucose: Low Based on these CSF findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Tuberculous meningitis

    2. B.

      Pyogenic (bacterial) meningitis

    3. C.

      Viral meningitis

    4. D.

      Fungal meningitis

    Answer and explanation
  166. Q160 · Applied Anatomy · Miscellaneous

    Q6. A developmental remnant of the embryological hindgut persisting in the retrorectal (presacral) space is most likely to give rise to which of the following lesions?

    A. Chondroma

    B. Tailgut cyst

    C. Epidermoid cyst

    D. Dermoid cyst

    1. A.

      Chondroma

    2. B.

      Tailgut cyst

    3. C.

      Epidermoid cyst

    4. D.

      Dermoid cyst

    Answer and explanation
  167. Q161 · Applied Anatomy · Sensory Organs

    Which of the following structures is NOT part of the trabecular outflow pathway?

    1. A.

      Trabecular meshwork

    2. B.

      Uveoscleral pathway

    3. C.

      Schlemm's canal

    4. D.

      Collector vessels

    Answer and explanation
  168. Q162 · Pathology & Genetics · Clinical Pathology

    A peripheral blood smear is shown below. Which supravital stain was used?

    1. A.

      Giemsa stain

    2. B.

      New Methylene Blue

    3. C.

      Leishman stain

    4. D.

      Diff-Quik stain

    Answer and explanation
  169. Q163 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Injuries to the Birth Canal

    A patient is unable to pass urine four hours after an instrumental vaginal delivery. Examination reveals a bluish cystic swelling in the vaginal wall. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Vaginal hematoma

    2. B.

      Perineal tear

    3. C.

      Bartholin's cyst

    4. D.

      Cystocoele

    Answer and explanation
  170. Q164 · Applied Anatomy · Digestive System

    The histological section shown in the image, characterized by predominantly serous acini, is best identified as which organ?

    1. A.

      Sublingual salivary gland

    2. B.

      Pancreas

    3. C.

      Parotid gland

    4. D.

      Liver

    Answer and explanation
  171. Q165 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Metabolic and Endocrine Function

    A patient on long-term steroid therapy presents with centripetal obesity, buffalo hump, and abdominal striae. Dexamethasone suppression test confirms the diagnosis. What is the next investigation to identify the source?

    1. A.

      ACTH level

    2. B.

      CECT adrenal

    3. C.

      Non-contrast CT adrenal

    4. D.

      MRI pituitary gland

    Answer and explanation
  172. Q166 · Applied Anatomy · Digestive System

    Q5. Match each of the following gastrointestinal organs with its distinctive histological feature:

    Organ Histological Feature

    1. Ileum a. Taenia coli

    2. Transverse colon b. Villi

    3. Esophagus c. Peyer's patches

    1. Duodenum d. Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
    1. A.

      1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b

    2. B.

      1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b

    3. C.

      1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d

    4. D.

      1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b

    Answer and explanation
  173. Q167 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Urinary Tract Function

    RADIOLOGY

    A radiologist is reviewing requests for gadolinium-based contrast MRI (ACR Group II agent). In which of the following clinical scenarios is contrast-enhanced MRI CONTRAINDICATED or requires special caution?

    1. A.

      A child with a documented normal renal function test report

    2. B.

      A 50-year-old patient with eGFR of 30 mL/min/1.73 m²

    3. C.

      A 30-year-old healthy male without available renal function tests

    4. D.

      A 60-year-old diabetic male without available renal function tests

    Answer and explanation
  174. Q168 · Pathology & Genetics · Miscellaneous

    A 10-year-old boy presents with excessive eating (hyperphagia) and obesity, with a BMI of 33. Genetic testing shows a deletion on chromosome 15. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Angelman syndrome

    2. B.

      Prader-Willi syndrome

    3. C.

      Rett syndrome

    4. D.

      Down syndrome

    Answer and explanation
  175. Q169 · Forensic Nursing & Indian laws · Injuries

    Based on the image, what is the range of the firearm wound?

    1. A.

      Close

    2. B.

      Contact

    3. C.

      Exit wound

    4. D.

      Distant

    Answer and explanation
  176. Q170 · Applied Anatomy · Musculoskeletal System

    In the diagram of the abdominal wall musculature, the muscle labelled 'X' and the structure formed by its aponeurosis are best identified as:

    1. A.

      External oblique — Inguinal ligament

    2. B.

      Internal oblique — Conjoint tendon

    3. C.

      Transversus abdominis — Conjoint tendon

    4. D.

      Rectus abdominis — Linea alba

    Answer and explanation
  177. Q171 · Pharmacology · Drug Affecting Blood & Blood Formation

    Which of the following statements is correct regarding Ticagrelor?

    1. A.

      It is associated with reduced risk of intracranial bleeding compared to Clopidogrel

    2. B.

      It requires hepatic enzymatic activation to produce its active metabolite

    3. C.

      It exerts its antiplatelet effect by directly blocking the P2Y12 ADP receptor

    4. D.

      Its antiplatelet action is irreversible and persists until new platelets are formed

    Answer and explanation
  178. Q172 · Community Health Nursing · Epidemiology – Epidemiological Approaches and Processes

    On evaluating an influenza vaccine, it demonstrated an efficacy of 95% in randomized controlled trials and an effectiveness of 90% in post-marketing surveillance studies. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

    1. A.

      Vaccinated individuals demonstrate a 95% reduction in disease risk vs unvaccinated

    2. B.

      Vaccinated individuals show a 90% reduction in influenza risk in real-world settings

    3. C.

      The vaccine confers absolute and complete protection against influenza infection

    4. D.

      Vaccine effectiveness can be lower than efficacy in real-world settings

    Answer and explanation
  179. Q173 · Applied Physiology · Sensory organs

    Which of the following correctly describes the changes that take place during dark adaptation? A) Retinol is converted to vitamin D B) Dilated pupils C) Eyes sensitive to light D) Functional rhodopsin is formed (Opsin binds with 11-cis-retinal)

    1. A.

      A and B

    2. B.

      B only

    3. C.

      B, C, and D

    4. D.

      D only

    Answer and explanation
  180. Q174 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Miscellaneous

    A wound swab reveals gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, sensitive to Cefoxitin and Oxacillin. What is the drug of choice?

    1. A.

      Ceftriaxone

    2. B.

      Vancomycin

    3. C.

      Cloxacillin

    4. D.

      Amoxicillin/Clavulanate

    Answer and explanation
  181. Q175 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Carbohydrates

    Q12. A laboratory worker accidentally inhales fumes of an oxidative phosphorylation uncoupling agent. Which of the following physiological changes is most likely to occur?

    1. A.

      ↓ O2 consumption, ↑ Body temperature, ↑ ATP production

    2. B.

      ↑ O2 consumption, ↑ Body temperature, ↓ ATP production

    3. C.

      ↑ O2 consumption, ↓ Body temperature, ↑ ATP production

    4. D.

      ↓ O2 consumption, ↓ Body temperature, ↓ ATP production

    Answer and explanation
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  183. Q176 · Pharmacology · Drugs Acting on Central Nervous System

    Regarding the cardiovascular effects of halothane on blood pressure, the following statements are given: 1. A drop of 20–30 mmHg in blood pressure is commonly observed 2. The fall in blood pressure begins early and is proportional to the depth of Anaesthesia 3. The fall in blood pressure reduces as the depth of Anaesthesia 4. The baroreceptor reflex mechanism is activated in response to the fall in blood pressure Which of the above statements are correct?

    1. A.

      1, 2, and 3 only

    2. B.

      2, 3, and 4 only

    3. C.

      1, 2, and 4 only

    4. D.

      1, 3, and 4 only

    Answer and explanation
  184. Q177 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Physiological Changes During Pregnancy

    What is the primary cause of mild breathlessness experienced during normal pregnancy?

    1. A.

      Decreased tidal volume

    2. B.

      Progesterone-induced stimulation of the respiratory centre

    3. C.

      Reduced oxygen intake

    4. D.

      Increased arterial PCO₂ levels

    Answer and explanation
  185. Q178 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Newborn Infants

    A pregnant woman with SLE delivers a neonate who is found to have a heart rate of 45 beats per minute. ECG confirms complete heart block. Which maternal antibody is most likely responsible?

    1. A.

      Anti-Ro antibody

    2. B.

      Anti-dsDNA antibody

    3. C.

      Anti-histone antibody

    4. D.

      Anti-Smith antibody

    Answer and explanation
  186. Q179 · Applied Anatomy · Sensory Organs

    Q13. Identify the skin receptor shown in the image:

    1. A.

      Pacinian corpuscle

    2. B.

      Merkel disc

    3. C.

      Ruffini ending

    4. D.

      Meissner corpuscle

    Answer and explanation
  187. Q180 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Metabolic and Endocrine Function

    A 66-year-old female has normal calcium, elevated PTH, low phosphate, and raised ALP. What is the diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism

    2. B.

      Vitamin D deficiency

    3. C.

      Hypoparathyroidism

    4. D.

      Chronic kidney disease

    Answer and explanation
  188. Q181 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Sexually Transmitted Infections

    A woman presents with frothy green vaginal discharge, intense pruritus, and a negative Whiff test. What is seen on microscopy?

    1. A.

      Motile flagellate organisms

    2. B.

      Clue cells

    3. C.

      Yeasts with pseudohyphae

    4. D.

      Candida

    Answer and explanation
  189. Q182 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Miscellaneous

    What is the primary molecular mechanism by which UV light induces carcinogenesis?

    1. A.

      Inhibition of TP53

    2. B.

      Activation of the NF-kappa β signaling pathway

    3. C.

      Thymine dimers

    4. D.

      Upregulation of cyclin proteins

    Answer and explanation
  190. Q183 · Pathology & Genetics · General Pathology

    A pathologist receives a formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue section. Which technique is most appropriate for identifying and localizing specific proteins within this section in situ?

    1. A.

      Fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH)

    2. B.

      Flow cytometry

    3. C.

      Western blot

    4. D.

      Immunohistochemistry (IHC)

    Answer and explanation
  191. Q184 · Pathology & Genetics · Systemic Pathology

    In neuropraxia, what is the pathological finding?

    1. A.

      Nerve trunk damage

    2. B.

      Perineurium damage

    3. C.

      Axon disruption

    4. D.

      Physiological conduction block with intact axon

    Answer and explanation
  192. Q185 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Central Nervous System

    A child diagnosed with Dravet syndrome is receiving multi-drug anti-seizure therapy and is being considered for add-on treatment with fenfluramine. Which of the following monitoring strategies is most critical before initiating and during the course of this therapy, given the known pharmacological adverse-effect profile of fenfluramine?

    1. A.

      Monthly complete blood count to monitor for agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia

    2. B.

      Serial echocardiography to evaluate for cardiac valvular disease and pulmonary hypertension

    3. C.

      Baseline and periodic ophthalmic examinations to monitor for visual field defects

    4. D.

      Serial liver function tests and serum ammonia levels to monitor for hepatotoxicity

    Answer and explanation
  193. Q186 · Pathology & Genetics · Systemic Pathology

    A patient from North-East India presents with pulmonary cavitary lesions and hepatic nodules. Sputum AFB smear is negative. Biopsy shows caseating granulomas with Langhans-type giant cells and raised ESR. What is the most probable diagnosis?

    1. A.

      A. Toxoplasmosis

    2. B.

      B. Tuberculosis

    3. C.

      D. Sarcoidosis

    4. D.

      D. Sarcoidosis

    Answer and explanation
  194. Q187 · Pharmacology · Cardiovascular Drugs

    Unlike other calcium channel blockers, Cilnidipine does not cause reflex tachycardia. What is the reason for this?

    1. A.

      It additionally blocks N-type calcium channels

    2. B.

      It additionally blocks T-type calcium channels

    3. C.

      It additionally blocks C-type calcium channels

    4. D.

      It additionally blocks sodium channels

    Answer and explanation
  195. Q188 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms

    A diabetic patient presents with facial pain, black nasal eschar and eye pain following corticosteroid therapy. What is the etiological agent?

    1. A.

      Candida tropicalis

    2. B.

      Aspergillus fumigatus

    3. C.

      Cryptococcus neoformans D. Rhizopus

    4. D.

      Rhizopus

    Answer and explanation
  196. Q189 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Sensorineural Function

    A patient has sudden, painful loss of vision with RAPD but a normal-appearing optic disc on fundoscopy. What is the diagnosis?

    1. A.

      AION

    2. B.

      Central retinal artery occlusion

    3. C.

      Retrobulbar neuritis

    4. D.

      Papilledema

    Answer and explanation
  197. Q190 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Miscellaneous

    A 40-year-old female with progressive left flank pain, no mass or fever. What is the next best step?

    1. A.

      CECT followed by MRI

    2. B.

      Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen

    3. C.

      Ultrasound followed by non-contrast CT

    4. D.

      Non-contrast CT followed by contrast CT

    Answer and explanation
  198. Q191 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function

    A 35-year-old HIV-positive female on irregular ART presents with headache, confusion, fever, and right-sided weakness. Her CD4 count is 40 cells/mm³. MRI brain shows multiple ring-enhancing lesions in the basal ganglia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. A.

      Cerebral toxoplasmosis

    2. B.

      Primary CNS lymphoma

    3. C.

      Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)

    4. D.

      Neurocysticercosis

    Answer and explanation
  199. Q192 · Nursing Research & Statistics · Research Approaches and Designs

    Health data from 15 nations investigating the relationship between per capita tobacco consumption and national COPD prevalence, revealing a strong positive correlation. Which study type best describes this?

    1. A.

      Case-control study

    2. B.

      Cohort study

    3. C.

      Cross-sectional study

    4. D.

      Ecological study

    Answer and explanation
  200. Q193 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms

    6. A young female presents with fatigue, pallor, and symptoms suggestive of iron deficiency anemia. A microscopic image of her stool examination is provided. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the parasite identified?

    1. A.

      Infection occurs by ingestion of cysts in contaminated food or water

    2. B.

      Infection occurs by active penetration of infective larvae through the skin

    3. C.

      The image represents eggs of Enterobius vermicularis

    4. D.

      The parasite shown is Ascaris lumbricoides

    Answer and explanation
  201. Q194 · Forensic Nursing & Indian laws · Injuries

    Which type of injury is characterized by the 'sparrow foot' pattern?

    1. A.

      Bomb blast

    2. B.

      Motor vehicle accident

    3. C.

      Contusion

    4. D.

      Collision

    Answer and explanation
  202. Q195 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Digestive and Gastrointestinal Function

    A 55-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, distension, and vomiting. Imaging confirms a diagnosis of cecal volvulus. Which of the following risk factors is responsible for 50–70% of cecal volvulus cases?

    1. A.

      High-fiber diet

    2. B.

      Lactulose abuse

    3. C.

      Female sex

    4. D.

      Previous abdominal surgery

    Answer and explanation
  203. Q196 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · General Characteristics of Microbes

    Which of the following bacteria possesses two circular DNA molecules (i.e., two distinct chromosomes) in its genome?

    1. A.

      Escherichia coli

    2. B.

      Vibrio cholerae

    3. C.

      Salmonella typhi

    4. D.

      Shigella dysenteriae

    Answer and explanation
  204. Q197 · Community Health Nursing · National Health Programs

    Under the RMNCH+A programme, a state is categorized in the "Red" zone. Which criterion is likely responsible for this classification?

    1. A.

      MMR lower than the national benchmark

    2. B.

      Institutional delivery rate meeting the nationally accepted threshold

    3. C.

      IMR exceeding the national average by 20% or more

    4. D.

      Full immunization coverage achieving the desired target

    Answer and explanation
  205. Q198 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Musculoskeletal Function

    A 60-year-old man with treated TB 1 year ago presents with low back pain. MRI spine shows a lesion. What is the most appropriate next investigation?

    1. A.

      CECT spine

    2. B.

      Mantoux test

    3. C.

      CT chest

    4. D.

      Biopsy

    Answer and explanation
  206. Q199 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Other Acute Problems

    The injury shown in the image is best described as:

    1. A.

      Laceration

    2. B.

      Contusion

    3. C.

      Stab injury

    4. D.

      Bomb blast

    Answer and explanation