BTSC Staff Nurse, 3 August 2025 question paper
BTSC Staff Nurse · 2025 · 100 questions · 120 minutes · 0.25 mark deducted per wrong answer
- Medical & Surgical Nursing 18
- Nursing Foundations 13
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology 12
- Community Health Nursing 8
- Applied Microbiology & Infection control 8
- Mental Health Nursing 6
- Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) 6
- Applied Physiology 6
- Applied Psychology 5
- Nursing Management & Leadership 4
- Pharmacology 4
- Applied Nutrition & Dietetics 3
- Applied Anatomy 2
- Biochemistry & Nutrition 2
- Forensic Nursing & Indian laws 1
- General Knowledge 1
- Pathology & Genetics 1
See the answers and explanations
Sign in free: every answer with its explanation, attempt the paper timed with negative marking, and track your score.
Q1 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Integumentary Function
Which stage of pressure injury involves full-thickness skin loss where adipose tissue is visible, but bone, tendon, or muscle are not exposed?
- A.
Stage 1
- B.
Stage 2
- C.
Stage 3
- D.
Stage 4
- A.
Q2 · Nursing Management & Leadership · Organisational Behaviour & Human Relations
Which of the following leadership styles is characterised by the leader empowering their team and encouraging participation in decision-making?
- A.
Authoritarian
- B.
Autocratic
- C.
Democratic
- D.
Laissez-faire
- A.
Q3 · Mental Health Nursing · Therapeutic Communication and Nurse- Patient Relationship
The term 'empathy' in therapeutic relationship represents:
- A.
giving the child whatever they want or ask
- B.
sympathising with the child's situation or disability
- C.
feeling sorry for the child's illness and injury
- D.
understanding and sharing the child's feelings
- A.
Q4 · Nursing Foundations · History of Nursing & Nursing as a profession
All of the following are the core components that define the practice and purpose of the nursing profession, EXCEPT?
- A.
Professionalism and holism
- B.
Caring and communication
- C.
Critical thinking
- D.
Naturalism and idealism
- A.
Q5 · Nursing Foundations · Miscellaneous
What is the main purpose of decontamination in a healthcare setting?
- A.
To reduce the number of pathogenic microorganisms to a safe level
- B.
To increase the risk of infection transmission and cross-infection
- C.
To dispose of contaminated waste and general waste in colour-coded bins
- D.
To eliminate all microorganisms, including beneficial ones and spores
- A.
Q6 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Other Acute Problems
Which manoeuvre is used to treat upper airway obstructions caused by foreign bodies?
- A.
Epley manoeuvre
- B.
Heimlich manoeuvre
- C.
Valsalva manoeuvre
- D.
Toynbee manoeuvre
- A.
Q7 · Nursing Foundations · Miscellaneous
Which sign is indicative of hypocalcemia when a blood pressure cuff is inflated above systolic pressure?
- A.
Chvostek’s sign
- B.
Trousseau’s sign
- C.
Homan’s sign
- D.
Kernig’s sign
- A.
Q8 · Mental Health Nursing · Neurotic, stress related and somatisation disorders
What is the fear of marriage called?
- A.
Gamophobia
- B.
Acrophobia
- C.
Claustrophobia
- D.
Insectophobia
- A.
Q9 · Applied Psychology · Soft Skills & its applications
What is represented by the 'Blind Spot' in the Johari Window?
- A.
Things only the individual knows about themselves
- B.
Things that are known to others but not to the individual
- C.
Things that are known to the individual but not to others
- D.
Things that are unknown to both the individual and others
- A.
Q10 · Forensic Nursing & Indian laws · Dummy
The main purpose of an MLC record is:
- A.
to track the number of patients seen in the emergency room
- B.
to document medical findings relevant to legal proceedings
- C.
to provide a detailed history of the patient's illness
- D.
to replace the patient's routine medical record
- A.
Q11 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Immunization and Immunodeficiency
The rotavirus vaccine is primarily administered to protect against which of the following types of childhood illness?
- A.
Diarrhoea
- B.
Hepatitis
- C.
Pneumonia
- D.
Measles
- A.
Q12 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Newborn Infants
Which congenital anomaly requires immediate surgery?
- A.
Single palmer crease
- B.
Cleft earlobe
- C.
Minor birthmark
- D.
Gastroschisis
- A.
Q13 · Community Health Nursing · Assisting individuals and families to promote and maintain their health
What is the primary goal of health promotion?
- A.
To manage chronic conditions using an algorithm
- B.
To improve overall well-being and prevent disease
- C.
To provide rehabilitation services
- D.
To cure existing or anticipated illnesses
- A.
Q14 · Community Health Nursing · Assisting individuals and families to promote and maintain their health
Which of the following best describes the technical specifications of a large deep freezer used in the immunisation cold chain system?
- A.
Temperature: -25°C to -35°C; Storage: 400 Litres; Holdover time: 4 hours
- B.
Temperature: 2°C to 8°C; Storage: 50 Litres; Holdover time: 6 hours
- C.
Temperature: -15°C to -25°C; Storage: 275–300 Litres; Holdover time: At 43°C for 2 hrs 30 mins
- D.
Temperature: -2°C to 2°C; Storage: 100 Litres; Holdover time: 1 hour
- A.
Q15 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Cardiovascular, Circulatory, and Hematologic Function
The "Golden Hour" for the administration of thrombolytics in a suspected Myocardial Infarction is ideally within:
- A.
30 minutes
- B.
60 minutes
- C.
90 minutes
- D.
120 minutes
- A.
Q16 · General Knowledge · Miscellaneous
Transformational leaders generally tend to show all of the following characteristics, EXCEPT?
- A.
Charisma
- B.
Intellectual stimulation
- C.
Inspirational leadership
- D.
Consideration of only self-needs
- A.
Q17 · Nursing Foundations · Nursing Process
The main characteristic of modular nursing is:
- A.
focus on the efficient use of resources within a defined area
- B.
decentralised decision-making and protocol developme
- C.
assignment of patients based on diagnosis and surgery plan
- D.
increased specialisation of nursing tasks and functions
- A.
Q18 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Metabolic and Endocrine Function
Which is an emergency medicine used to treat severe hypoglycaemia?
- A.
Insulin injection
- B.
Serotonin injection
- C.
Glucagon injection
- D.
Calcitonin injection
- A.
Q19 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Skin Disorders
What are Koplik’s spots?
- A.
Tiny white spots on the inner cheeks, near the molars, that appear before the skin rash, seen in measles
- B.
Round, oval, or flame-shaped haemorrhages with a white or pale centre, seen in the retina in measles
- C.
Painless, flat, reddish or purplish macules on the palms and soles of the feet, seen in infective endocarditis
- D.
Painful, red or purple, raised lesions, typically found on the pads of the fingers and toes, seen in infective endocarditis
- A.
Q20 · Community Health Nursing · Assisting individuals and families to promote and maintain their health
Which of the following is NOT a measure to maintain health?
- A.
Establish a regular sleep schedule and create a relaxing bedtime routine.
- B.
Aim for at least 30 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise most days of the week.
- C.
Limit intake of fruits, vegetables, lean proteins and whole grains.
- D.
Drink plenty of water throughout the day if there are no contraindications.
- A.
Q21 · Nursing Foundations · Communication & Nurse-Patient Relationship
Which of the following health communication models emphasises a two-way exchange of information and shared decision-making between health professionals and patients?
- A.
Participatory/Patient-centred model
- B.
Passive information-delivery model
- C.
Authoritative/Autocratic model
- D.
Paternalistic model
- A.
Q22 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · General Characteristics of Microbes
Which of the following is an inanimate object that can carry and spread disease and infectious agents?
- A.
Reservoir
- B.
Body defences
- C.
Fomite
- D.
Fomite
- A.
Q23 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Neurologic Function
What is the characteristic feature of hemiplegia?
- A.
Paralysis of the upper body
- B.
Paralysis of both sides of the body
- C.
Paralysis of the lower body
- D.
Paralysis of one side of the body
- A.
Q24 · Applied Nutrition & Dietetics · Balanced Diet
The amount of salt recommended for adults in diet is ________.
- A.
10g/day
- B.
15g/day
- C.
20g/day
- D.
< 5g/day
- A.
Q25 · Nursing Foundations · Administration of medications
What is the angle used for a subcutaneous injection?
- A.
90°
- B.
180°
- C.
15°
- D.
45°
- A.
- Sign in free
Done 25 questions? Check your answers
Sign in free: every answer with its explanation, attempt the paper timed with negative marking, and track your score.
Q26 · Mental Health Nursing · Therapeutic Communication and Nurse- Patient Relationship
During which phase of the nurse-patient relationship do the nurse and the patient work together to establish goals?
- A.
Orientation phase
- B.
Termination phase
- C.
Pre-interaction phase
- D.
Working phase
- A.
Q27 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Shock and Multisystem Failure
Which of the following systemic effects is observed in a patient with hypovolemic shock?
- A.
Decreased capillary permeability
- B.
Activation of the sympathetic response
- C.
Activation of parasympathetic response
- D.
Decreased production of mineralocorticoids
- A.
Q28 · Applied Nutrition & Dietetics · Fats
Which macronutrient provides the highest caloric value per gram?
- A.
Proteins
- B.
Carbohydrates
- C.
Fats
- D.
Alcohol
- A.
Q29 · Applied Psychology · Personality
Which stage of Erikson’s Psychosocial Development theory covers the age range of 6–12 years?
- A.
Initiative vs. Guilt
- B.
Identity vs. Role Confusion
- C.
Industry vs. Inferiority
- D.
Intimacy vs. Isolation
- A.
Q30 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Biomedical Waste Management (BMW)
What is the ideal way to handle contaminated sharps, including needles?
- A.
Recap needles to prevent accidental puncture and injury
- B.
Leave them on the bedside table for later disposal
- C.
Wash them with soap and water before disposal
- D.
Dispose of them immediately in a puncture-resistant container
- A.
Q31 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Sensorineural Function
Which of the following symptoms is correctly matched with the BE FAST acronym used to identify signs of a stroke?
- A.
B – Breathing difficulty
- B.
S – Sweating
- C.
E – Eye pain
- D.
F – Facial drooping
- A.
Q32 · Community Health Nursing · Assisting individuals and families to promote and maintain their health
What is the most effective way to prevent infectious diseases?
- A.
Reducing sugar in diets
- B.
Vaccination
- C.
Annual physical examination
- D.
Drinking herbal tea
- A.
Q33 · Nursing Foundations · Health Assessment
What is the primary clinical significance of assessing skin turgor of a patient?
- A.
To measure skin temperature for signs of fever
- B.
To assess hydration status by checking the elasticity of the skin
- C.
To determine the presence of a skin infection and erythema
- D.
To evaluate oxygen saturation in the skin
- A.
Q34 · Nursing Foundations · Nursing Theories
What is EBP in clinical practice?
- A.
Evidence-based practice
- B.
Elocution-based practice
- C.
Economy-based practice
- D.
Ergonomics-based practice
- A.
Q35 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Miscellaneous
Roper-Hall, modified Hughes classification and the Dua classification are commonly used to classify:
- A.
strabismus
- B.
corneal burns
- C.
retinal detachment
- D.
amblyopia
- A.
Q36 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Diagnosis of Pregnancy
Which of the following signs is characterised by a bluish or purplish hue in the cervix, vagina and vulva during pregnancy?
- A.
Cullen sign
- B.
Bryant sign
- C.
Chadwick's Sign
- D.
Turner sign
- A.
Q37 · Nursing Foundations · History of Nursing & Nursing as a profession
Why is accountability essential for nurses?
- A.
To ensure responsibility
- B.
To shortens shift hours
- C.
To increases salary
- D.
To reduces paper work
- A.
Q38 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · General Characteristics of Microbes
The place where an infectious agent lives and multiplies is termed as:
- A.
agent
- B.
reservoir
- C.
portal of entry
- D.
portal of exit
- A.
Q39 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Cardiovascular, Circulatory, and Hematologic Function
In the administration of blood products, how long after initiation must the nurse stay with the patient to monitor for an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction?
- A.
5 minutes
- B.
15 minutes
- C.
30 minutes
- D.
60 minutes
- A.
Q40 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Miscellaneous
In the context of infection control, which type of precaution is required for a patient with Pulmonary Tuberculosis?
- A.
Contact precautions
- B.
Droplet precautions
- C.
Airborne precautions
- D.
Standard precautions
- A.
Q41 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Anatomy of the Female Pelvic Organs
The main anatomical target for female sterilisation procedures is:
- A.
removal of the ovaries and ampulla
- B.
removal of the uterus and isthmus
- C.
blocking of the cervix
- D.
ligation of the fallopian tubes
- A.
Q42 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Abnormalities of the Puerperium
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT related to the advantages of early ambulation in puerperium?
- A.
Hampers uterine drainage and uterine involution
- B.
Lessens the number of days of stay in the hospital
- C.
Reduces bladder complications and constipation
- D.
Reduces the chances of puerperal venous thrombosis and embolism
- A.
Q43 · Applied Physiology · Digestive system
What is the primary role of the bile in digestion?
- A.
Production of amino acids
- B.
To breakdown carbohydrates
- C.
To breakdown proteins
- D.
To emulsify fats
- A.
Q44 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Other Acute Problems
What is the primary goal when using a stretcher for trauma patients?
- A.
Spinal motion restriction
- B.
Elevating the legs
- C.
Speed of transport
- D.
Comfort positioning
- A.
Q45 · Applied Physiology · Circulatory & Lymphatic system
During intense exercise, the heart rate may accelerate to 150 beats/min and the stroke volume may rise to 130 mL/beat. Calculate the cardiac output.
- A.
19.5 L/min
- B.
10 L/min
- C.
1.95 L/min
- D.
195 L/min
- A.
Q46 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Miscellaneous
The recommended minimum space for an individual ICU room (excluding ancillary spaces) to ensure adequate patient care and workflow is:
- A.
150 ft²
- B.
100 ft²
- C.
50 ft²
- D.
250 ft²
- A.
Q47 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Fluid and Electrolytes: Balance and Distribution
Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of fluid volume status in a critically ill patient?
- A.
Daily weight
- B.
Intake and Output (I&O) record
- C.
Serum sodium level
- D.
Skin turgor
- A.
Q48 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Normal Labor
What is the normal length of the cervix before effacement begins?
- A.
2-4 cm
- B.
1-2 cm
- C.
0.5-1 cm
- D.
5-6 cm
- A.
Q49 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Hemorrhage in Early Pregnancy
Which of the following abortion occurs when the foetus has died or failed to develop, but the body has not expelled the pregnancy tissue?
- A.
Complete Abortion
- B.
Threatened abortion
- C.
Missed Abortion
- D.
Inevitable Abortion
- A.
Q50 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms
Salmonella that causes typhoid fever is a:
- A.
gram-negative cocci
- B.
gram-negative bacillus
- C.
gram-positive cocci
- D.
gram-positive bacillus
- A.
- Sign in free
Done 50 questions? Check your answers
Sign in free: every answer with its explanation, attempt the paper timed with negative marking, and track your score.
Q51 · Pharmacology · Drugs Acting on Central Nervous System
The anxiolytics drugs mainly work by affecting which of the following neurotransmitters in the brain?
- A.
Acetylcholine
- B.
Serotonin
- C.
Dopamine
- D.
GABA
- A.
Q52 · Applied Physiology · Renal system
The nurse recognizes that the "normal" hourly urine output for a healthy adult is approximately:
- A.
10–20 mL/hr
- B.
30–50 mL/hr
- C.
60–80 mL/hr
- D.
100–120 mL/hr
- A.
Q53 · Applied Physiology · Digestive system
Which of the following is NOT the main intestinal enzyme?
- A.
Lactase
- B.
Proteases
- C.
Amylase
- D.
Lingual lipase
- A.
Q54 · Applied Nutrition & Dietetics · National Nutritional Program and Role
Which of the following is a compound of iodine used for iodization of salt?
- A.
Sodium nitrate
- B.
Calcium carbonate
- C.
Potassium iodate
- D.
Potassium chloride
- A.
Q55 · Community Health Nursing · Demography, Surveillance and Interpretation of Data
Which health indicator shows the number of live births in a year per 1,000 population?
- A.
General fertility rate
- B.
Net reproduction rate
- C.
Fertility rate
- D.
Crude birth rate
- A.
Q56 · Community Health Nursing · Epidemiology – Epidemiological Approaches and Processes
Which decontamination method destroys all microbes including spores on surgical instruments?
- A.
Sanitisation
- B.
Disinfection
- C.
Sterilisation
- D.
Antisepsis
- A.
Q57 · Applied Physiology · Circulatory & Lymphatic system
The primary electrolyte responsible for maintaining resting membrane potential in cardiac cells is:
- A.
Sodium
- B.
Potassium
- C.
Calcium
- D.
Magnesium
- A.
Q58 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Placenta and Fetal Membranes
Central separation of placenta is otherwise called:
- A.
Shirodkar
- B.
Mathews-Duncan
- C.
McDonald
- D.
Schultze
- A.
Q59 · Applied Physiology · Digestive system
Succus entericus is also known as:
- A.
gastric juice
- B.
saliva
- C.
intestinal juice
- D.
cerebrospinal fluid
- A.
Q60 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Digestive and Gastrointestinal Function
The nurse is assessing a patient with suspected appendicitis. Which point of tenderness is specifically associated with this condition?
- A.
McBurney’s point
- B.
Erb’s point
- C.
Murphy’s point
- D.
Cullen’s point
- A.
Q61 · Applied Anatomy · Reproductive System
What is a dome-shaped portion superior to the uterine tubes called?
- A.
Fundus
- B.
Cervix
- C.
Isthmus
- D.
Body
- A.
Q62 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Miscellaneous
Which of the following stains is used to differentiate between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?
- A.
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
- B.
Gram stain
- C.
Albert's stain
- D.
Acid-fast stain
- A.
Q63 · Community Health Nursing · Epidemiology – Epidemiological Approaches and Processes
What is the usual route of administration of the measles vaccine as per the National
Immunization Schedule?
- A.
Intravenous
- B.
Intradermal
- C.
Intramuscular
- D.
Subcutaneous
- A.
Q64 · Nursing Management & Leadership · Management Process
Which type of audit compares care against predefined standards?
- A.
Patient-focused
- B.
Incident-based
- C.
Concurrent
- D.
Structure audit
- A.
Q65 · Pharmacology · Miscellaneous
Which type of IV fluid is used for a patient experiencing cellular dehydration?
- A.
Hypertonic
- B.
Blood products
- C.
Hypotonic
- D.
Isotonic
- A.
Q66 · Pharmacology · Drugs Acting on Central Nervous System
All of the following are common examples of inhalation anaesthesia, EXCEPT:
- A.
Isoflurane
- B.
Halothane
- C.
Propofol
- D.
Nitrous oxide
- A.
Q67 · Mental Health Nursing · Behavioural & Emotional Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence
All of the following are the core symptoms of ADHD EXCEPT:
- A.
inattention
- B.
hyperactivity
- C.
social anxiety
- D.
impulsivity
- A.
Q68 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · COMPLICATED LABOR-Malposition, Malpresentation and Cord Prolapse
The Bishop Score is primarily used to assess ___________ in obstetrics.
- A.
foetal lung maturity
- B.
the readiness of the cervix for labour induction
- C.
the position of the placenta
- D.
the risk of postpartum haemorrhage
- A.
Q69 · Community Health Nursing · Concepts of Community Health and Community Health Nursing
Administration of the Gardasil vaccine comes under which level of prevention?
- A.
Tertiary prevention
- B.
Primary prevention
- C.
Secondary prevention
- D.
Primordial prevention
- A.
Q70 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Complications of the Third Stage of Labor
During the third stage of labour, a patient exhibits signs of placental separation, but the placenta fails to deliver within 30 minutes despite active management. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A.
Administer tocolytics to relax the uterus
- B.
Continue uterine massage and observe for another hour
- C.
Manual removal of the placenta under appropriate anaesthesia
- D.
Immediately initiate caesarean section
- A.
Q71 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Diagnosis of Pregnancy
Jacquemier's sign in early pregnancy is also known as:
- A.
Osiander's sign
- B.
Hegar sign
- C.
Chadwick sign
- D.
Goodell sign
- A.
Q72 · Applied Psychology · Developmental Psychology
What is the psychosocial stage of an infant as per Erik Erikson?
- A.
Trust vs. Mistrust
- B.
Intimacy vs. Isolation
- C.
Initiative vs. Guilt
- D.
Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
- A.
Q73 · Nursing Foundations · Patient Education
A person who has injured his right arm has heavy external bleeding from the open wound. What should be the first-aid measure to control bleeding?
- A.
Apply a tourniquet above the wound
- B.
Without applying pressure, wrap a bandage around the wound
- C.
Press the wound with both hands using a clean cloth or bandage
- D.
Apply ice bags over the wound
- A.
Q74 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Sensorineural Function
Which is the most common cause of viral conjunctivitis?
- A.
Herpes simplex virus
- B.
Enterovirus
- C.
Adenovirus
- D.
Varicella-zoster virus
- A.
Q75 · Nursing Foundations · Patient Education
Inspection shows that a loose eyelash has lodged in a girl’s left lower eye. Which of these is the immediate first aid measure in this situation?
- A.
Remove the foreign object with a narrow, warm swab or a cloth
- B.
Cover the eye and transport her to the nearest healthcare facility
- C.
Rinse the eye with plenty of clean water for 10-15 minutes from the nose outwards
- D.
Put medication into the affected eye and wait for 10 minutes
- A.
- Sign in free
Done 75 questions? Check your answers
Sign in free: every answer with its explanation, attempt the paper timed with negative marking, and track your score.
Q76 · Pathology & Genetics · General Pathology
Which chemical mediator is primarily responsible for dolor during inflammation?
- A.
Serotonin
- B.
Haemoglobin
- C.
Bradykinin
- D.
Fibrinogen
- A.
Q77 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Miscellaneous
The biological indicator used in autoclaves to confirm the complete and consistent destruction of microorganisms is the spores of Bacillus ___________.
- A.
anthracis
- B.
cereus
- C.
amyloliquefaciens
- D.
stearothermophilus
- A.
Q78 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Modern concepts of child- care
What is the core principle of paediatric nursing?
- A.
Provide family-centred care
- B.
Treat children as small adults
- C.
Prioritise paper works over play
- D.
Minimise family involvement
- A.
Q79 · Nursing Management & Leadership · Organisational Behaviour & Human Relations
Which of the following leadership styles is characterised by a leader who uses rewards and punishments to motivate employees?
- A.
Democratic leadership
- B.
Transactional leadership
- C.
Laissez-faire leadership
- D.
Transformational leadership
- A.
Q80 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Physiological Changes During Pregnancy
Around what gestational age does the amniotic fluid volume typically reach its peak?
- A.
34 to 36 weeks
- B.
40 to 42 weeks
- C.
24 to 28 weeks
- D.
18 to 20 weeks
- A.
Q81 · Pharmacology · Gastrointestinal Drugs
Which of the following laxatives is used in the form of a suppository?
- A.
Bisacodyl
- B.
Docusate sodium
- C.
Lactulose
- D.
Psyllium
- A.
Q82 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms
What is the hall mark sign of rubella infection?
- A.
Bull's eye rash
- B.
Koplik spots
- C.
Jaundice
- D.
Tender lymphnodes benhind the ears
- A.
Q83 · Applied Psychology · Mental Health & mental hygiene
Which of the following counselling approaches integrates techniques from different therapeutic orientations?
- A.
Gestalt therapy
- B.
Psychodynamic therapy
- C.
Centralised therapy
- D.
Eclectic counselling
- A.
Q84 · Nursing Foundations · Administration of medications
The most common site for an intramuscular injection in an infant is the:
- A.
Deltoid muscle
- B.
Dorsogluteal muscle
- C.
Vastus lateralis muscle
- D.
Ventrogluteal muscle
- A.
Q85 · Mental Health Nursing · Treatment modalities and therapies used in mental disorders
Which of the following group therapy techniques emphasises that helping others in the group can boost self-esteem and promote a sense of purpose?
- A.
Altruism
- B.
Anhedonia
- C.
Ambivalence
- D.
Ataxia
- A.
Q86 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Complications of the Third Stage of Labor
Which of the following conditions involves the placenta penetrating through the uterine wall and extending to other organs?
- A.
Placenta increta
- B.
Placenta percreta
- C.
Placenta accreta
- D.
Battledore placenta
- A.
Q87 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Gas Exchange and Respiratory Function
What are the two primary conditions that are classified under COPD?
- A.
Pleurisy and Pneumonia
- B.
Chronic Bronchitis and Emphysema
- C.
Bronchiectasis and Empyema
- D.
Bronchiectasis and Cystic Fibrosis
- A.
Q88 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Insulin, Glucose Homeostasis & Diabetes Mellitus
Which of the following hormones primarily stimulates the glycogenolysis process?
- A.
Aldosterone
- B.
Insulin
- C.
Calcitonin
- D.
Glucagon
- A.
Q89 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Immunologic Function
In an HIV infection, a diagnosis of AIDS is made when the CD4+ T-cell count falls below which of the following values?
- A.
200 cells/mm³
- B.
350 cells/mm³
- C.
800 cells/mm³
- D.
500 cells/mm³
- A.
Q90 · Applied Anatomy · Respiratory System
Which of the following is referred to as an artificial manual breathing unit?
- A.
Nasopharyngeal airway
- B.
I gel supraglottic airway
- C.
Combi tube
- D.
Bag valve mask
- A.
Q91 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Vitamins & Minerals
The primary storage forms of iron in the human body are ______.
- A.
endorphin and melanin
- B.
melatonin and encephalin
- C.
serotonin and prolactin
- D.
ferritin and hemosiderin
- A.
Q92 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Modern concepts of child- care
Which of the following is a primary principle of atraumatic care in paediatric nursing?
- A.
Avoiding the use of play therapy and use of toys in hospital premises
- B.
Using physical, chemical or mechanical restraints whenever necessary
- C.
Minimising physical and psychological stress for the child
- D.
Ignoring the child's emotional needs and the family's involvement
- A.
Q93 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness
The 'yellow' colour coding in the IMNCI chart represents:
- A.
a healthy child with no apparent illness or infection
- B.
minor illness needing home care advice and treatment
- C.
illness requiring specific medical treatment and advice
- D.
severe illness requiring immediate referral and surgery
- A.
Q94 · Nursing Foundations · Procedures
Which of the following is the primary focus of the secondary survey in trauma assessment?
- A.
Administering advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) medications
- B.
Performing a head-to-toe assessment after stabilisation of vital functions
- C.
Identifying and managing immediate life-threatening conditions
- D.
Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
- A.
Q95 · Nursing Management & Leadership · Management of Nursing Educational Institute
When does the 'halo effect' occur in performance appraisals of employees?
- A.
When a manager rates an employee high on all traits because of one outstanding trait
- B.
When a manager focuses only on the most recent performance of an employee
- C.
When a manager avoids giving negative feedback to an employee
- D.
When a manager rates an employee low on all traits due to one negative trait
- A.
Q96 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · COMPLICATED LABOR-Malposition, Malpresentation and Cord Prolapse
The Bracht manoeuvre is a technique used in the delivery of which of the following presentations to facilitate the delivery of the foetal head?
- A.
Breech presentation delivery
- B.
Vertex presentation delivery
- C.
Shoulder presentation delivery
- D.
Brow presentation delivery
- A.
Q97 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Metabolic and Endocrine Function
Which endocrine disorder occurs when the hypothalamus or pituitary gland is damaged, leading to insufficient vasopressin production or release?
- A.
Diabetes mellitus
- B.
Diabetes insipidus
- C.
SIADH
- D.
DKA
- A.
Q98 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Disinfection and Sterilization
Which method helps achieve complete sterilisation?
- A.
Autoclaving at 121°C
- B.
70% alcohol wiping
- C.
UV light exposure
- D.
Chlorine disinfection
- A.
Q99 · Applied Psychology · Cognitive Process
Which is a cognitive behaviour technique where individuals gradually expose themselves to feared situations or objects?
- A.
Contingency management
- B.
Rational emotive behavior therapy
- C.
Aversion therapy
- D.
Systematic desensitisation
- A.
Q100 · Mental Health Nursing · Mood disorders
Which of the following best distinguishes Bipolar I Disorder from Bipolar II Disorder?
- A.
Bipolar I includes at least one manic episode, while Bipolar II includes at least one hypomanic episode.
- B.
Bipolar I includes major depressive episodes, while Bipolar II does not.
- C.
Bipolar I is diagnosed only when both manic and depressive episodes are present.
- D.
Bipolar II includes full manic episodes, while Bipolar I includes hypomanic episodes.
- A.