BTSC Staff Nurse, 30 July 2025 question paper
BTSC Staff Nurse · 2025 · 100 questions · 120 minutes · 0.25 mark deducted per wrong answer
- Medical & Surgical Nursing 20
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology 12
- Community Health Nursing 9
- Nursing Foundations 9
- Applied Nutrition & Dietetics 7
- Applied Microbiology & Infection control 6
- Mental Health Nursing 6
- Nursing Management & Leadership 6
- Applied Physiology 5
- Pharmacology 4
- Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) 4
- Pathology & Genetics 3
- Forensic Nursing & Indian laws 2
- Applied Psychology 2
- Biochemistry & Nutrition 2
- General Knowledge 1
- Health Information and Technology (Basic Computer) 1
- Applied Anatomy 1
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Q1 · Community Health Nursing · Epidemiology – Epidemiological Approaches and Processes
Which of the following terms describe new cases of a disease?
- A.
Prevalence
- B.
Incidence
- C.
Comorbidity
- D.
Endemicity
- A.
Q2 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms
Which of the following is the primary mode of transmission of typhoid fever?
- A.
Through contaminated food and water
- B.
Through mosquito bites
- C.
Through direct contact with an infected person
- D.
Through airborne droplets
- A.
Q3 · Community Health Nursing · Epidemiology – Epidemiological Approaches and Processes
What is a 'windshield survey' in community health assessment?
- A.
A telephone interview to assess chronic diseases
- B.
A visual observation of a community while driving through
- C.
A mailed questionnaire about healthcare needs
- D.
A statistical report from health records
- A.
Q4 · Community Health Nursing · Nutrition Assessment and Nutrition Education
The National Iodine Deficiency Disorders Control Programme (NIDDCP) was previously known as:
- A.
National Goitre Control Programme
- B.
National Vitamin A Prophylaxis Programme
- C.
National Diarrhoea Control Programme
- D.
National Nutritional Anaemia Control Programme
- A.
Q5 · Pathology & Genetics · Miscellaneous
Which of the following instruments automates platelet counts?
- A.
Haematology analyser
- B.
Glucometer
- C.
Stethoscope
- D.
Sphygmomanometer
- A.
Q6 · Community Health Nursing · Concepts of Community Health and Community Health Nursing
Which of the following categories of Indicators measures whether patients can easily obtain needed health services?
- A.
Quality indicators
- B.
Outcome indicators
- C.
Efficiency indicators
- D.
Access indicators
- A.
Q7 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Normal Labor
What is cervical effacement?
- A.
The shortening of the uterus
- B.
The thinning of the cervix
- C.
The opening of the cervix
- D.
The descent of the baby's head
- A.
Q8 · Mental Health Nursing · Behavioural & Emotional Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence
What is the behaviour characteristic of the 'hyperactivity' component of ADHD?
- A.
Preferring solitary activities
- B.
Fidgeting, squirming, or restlessness
- C.
Difficulty with memory recall
- D.
Excessive daydreaming
- A.
Q9 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms
Which of the following is the causative organism of scabies?
- A.
Staphylococcus aureus
- B.
Candida albicans
- C.
Sarcoptes scabiei
- D.
Pediculus humanus capitis
- A.
Q10 · Nursing Foundations · Communication & Nurse-Patient Relationship
What does 'R' denote in the 'ISBAR' communication framework used in hospitals?
- A.
Recommendation
- B.
Reorganisation
- C.
Representation
- D.
Regulation
- A.
Q11 · Applied Nutrition & Dietetics · Carbohydrates
What is the calorific value of carbohydrates?
- A.
4 kilocalories per gram
- B.
2 kilocalories per gram
- C.
7 kilocalories per gram
- D.
9 kilocalories per gram
- A.
Q12 · General Knowledge · Economy and Business Current Affairs
An investment made by MNCS is called?
- A.
Foreign Investment
- B.
Deficit Accounting
- C.
Mutual Fund
- D.
Corporate Fund
- A.
Q13 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Musculoskeletal Function
What is the RICE protocol in treating a sprain and strain injury?
- A.
Rest, Immobilise, Compress, Elevate
- B.
Reduce, Ice, Compress, Elevate
- C.
Reduce, Immobilise, Compress, Exercise
- D.
Rest, Ice, Compress, Elevate
- A.
Q14 · Forensic Nursing & Indian laws · Dummy
The ICN Code of Ethics for Nurses promotes the concept of:
- A.
Nurses as solely caregivers, not decision-makers
- B.
Healthcare based on economic efficiency
- C.
Hierarchical decision-making in healthcare
- D.
Patient autonomy and informed consent
- A.
Q15 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Normal Labor
Which of the following statements best describes flexion in the mechanism of labour?
- A.
The foetal head descends through the birth canal.
- B.
The foetal head rotates internally to align with the pelvic outlet.
- C.
The foetal head rotates externally after delivery of the head.
- D.
The foetal chin tucks closer to the chest, reducing the presenting diameter.
- A.
Q16 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Antenatal Care, Preconceptional Counseling and Care
What is the primary use of performing first Leopold's Maneuver?
- A.
To determine what foetal part is presenting in the pelvis
- B.
To determine whether the foetus is engaged
- C.
To determine what foetal part occupies the fundus of the uterus
- D.
To determine the location of the foetal back
- A.
Q17 · Mental Health Nursing · Neurotic, stress related and somatisation disorders
Dissociative amnesia is most commonly associated with:
- A.
traumatic or stressful experiences
- B.
cognitive decline in old age
- C.
biological brain abnormalities
- D.
normal forgetfulness
- A.
Q18 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Hand Hygiene
What component of the chain of transmission is interrupted by hand hygiene?
- A.
Susceptible host
- B.
Reservoir
- C.
Mode of transmission
- D.
Portal of entry
- A.
Q19 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Antenatal Assessment of Fetal Well-Being
The main purpose of Leopold's manoeuvres is:
- A.
To assess maternal blood pressure and contraction frequency
- B.
To assess fetal heart rate and respiratory pattern
- C.
To determine fetal sex, RH status and blood group
- D.
To assess fetal position, presentation and engagement
- A.
Q20 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Prolonged Labor, Obstructed Labor, Dystocia Caused by Fetal Anomalies
Which of the following defines obstructed labour?
- A.
Premature placental separation
- B.
Rapid cervical dilation
- C.
Uterine overstimulation
- D.
Failure of fetal descent despite contractions
- A.
Q21 · Applied Physiology · Blood
What is the primary function of splenic venous sinuses?
- A.
T-cell activation
- B.
Antibody production
- C.
Filtration of damaged RBCs
- D.
Antigen presentation
- A.
Q22 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Other Acute Problems
Which of the following diseases is also known as rubeola?
- A.
Mumps
- B.
Rabies
- C.
Measles
- D.
Rubella
- A.
Q23 · Community Health Nursing · Epidemiology – Epidemiological Approaches and Processes
What does incidence denote in epidemiology?
- A.
The number of deaths due to a specific disease in a population.
- B.
The rate at which new cases of a disease occur in a population.
- C.
The proportion of a population that has a disease in a population.
- D.
The total number of cases of a disease at one point in time.
- A.
Q24 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Perioperative Concepts and Nursing Management
Which of the following is verified during the 'Sign In' phase of the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist, before induction of anaesthesia?
- A.
Surgical count and specimen labeling
- B.
Patient identity, surgical site and anaesthesia safety check
- C.
Postoperative instructions and discharge planning
- D.
Procedure completion and team debriefing
- A.
Q25 · Community Health Nursing · Epidemiology – Epidemiological Approaches and Processes
'Case finding' and 'contact tracing' are essential strategies in the control of which type of disease?
- A.
Genetic or chromosomal disorders
- B.
Mental health conditions
- C.
Chronic non-communicable diseases
- D.
Infectious diseases
- A.
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Q26 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Hemorrhage in Early Pregnancy
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a threatened abortion?
- A.
Vaginal bleeding
- B.
Uterine cramping
- C.
Open cervix
- D.
Viable pregnancy
- A.
Q27 · Pathology & Genetics · Genetics
Which of the following conditions is primarily characterised by neurocutaneous markers, such as cafe-au-lait macules and Lisch nodules?
- A.
Sturge-Weber syndrome
- B.
Von Hippel-Lindau disease
- C.
Tuberous Sclerosis Complex
- D.
Neurofibromatosis type 1
- A.
Q28 · Pharmacology · Miscellaneous
Which of the following is NOT a core element of the antibiotic stewardship programme?
- A.
Foundational structures
- B.
Tracking and reporting
- C.
Liberal use of antibiotics to all patients
- D.
Commitment, action and education
- A.
Q29 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Miscellaneous
What is the most consistent finding of respiratory alkalosis in an arterial blood gas (ABG)?
- A.
Low PaCO2, low pH
- B.
High PaCO2, high pH
- C.
High PaCO2, low pH
- D.
Low PaCO2, high pH
- A.
Q30 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Metabolic and Endocrine Function
Which of the following is a rare condition caused by destruction or dysfunction of the anterior pituitary gland, leading to a deficiency of multiple pituitary hormones?
- A.
Sheehan's syndrome
- B.
Frohlich's syndrome
- C.
Simmonds' disease
- D.
Cushing's disease
- A.
Q31 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Pathogenic Organisms
In which of the following are tetanus spores usually found?
- A.
Plants and insects
- B.
Blood and body fluids
- C.
Soil and animal faeces
- D.
Air and water
- A.
Q32 · Applied Physiology · Renal system
What is the primary action of Angiotensin II in the RAAS system?
- A.
Dilate blood vessels
- B.
Decrease aldosterone secretion
- C.
Constrict blood vessels
- D.
Increase urine production
- A.
Q33 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Metabolic and Endocrine Function
Which clinical finding should prompt iodine deficiency screening?
- A.
Hyperreflexia
- B.
Bleeding
- C.
Visible goitre
- D.
Hypertension
- A.
Q34 · Applied Nutrition & Dietetics · Nutritional Assessment and Nutrition Education
What is the primary purpose of skinfold thickness measurements?
- A.
To estimate body fat percentage
- B.
To estimate body protein percentage
- C.
To estimate body calcium percentage
- D.
To estimate body mineral percentage
- A.
Q35 · Nursing Foundations · Administration of medications
All of the following are the recommended sites for subcutaneous injections, EXCEPT:
- A.
anterior thigh
- B.
dorsogluteal area
- C.
anterior abdomen
- D.
upper arm
- A.
Q36 · Nursing Foundations · Vital Signs
What is the recommended rate of deflation for the blood pressure cuff during a manual measurement?
- A.
2-3 mmHg per second
- B.
15-18 mmHg per second
- C.
20-25 mmHg per second
- D.
10-12 mmHg per second
- A.
Q37 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Fluid and Electrolytes: Balance and Distribution
Why is 5% dextrose contraindicated in patients with acute head injury?
- A.
It may cause hyponatremia and cerebral oedema.
- B.
It triggers insulin resistance.
- C.
It increases blood glucose unpredictably.
- D.
It dilutes plasma electrolytes.
- A.
Q38 · Applied Psychology · Cognitive Process
The condition in which false beliefs are firmly maintained even though they are not shared by others is called:?
- A.
Delusion
- B.
Illusion
- C.
Hallucination
- D.
Delirium
- A.
Q39 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Oncology: Nursing Management in Cancer Care
What is the most common route of breast cancer spread?
- A.
Peritoneal dissemination
- B.
Direct extension to the contralateral breast
- C.
Lymphatic spread to the axillary lymph nodes
- D.
Hematogenous spread to the liver
- A.
Q40 · Nursing Foundations · Nursing Theories
The Health Promotion Model (HPM) was mainly proposed by:
- A.
Pender
- B.
Prochaska
- C.
Petritcia
- D.
Peplau
- A.
Q41 · Applied Physiology · General Physiology
Which of the following is the primary compensatory mechanism that the body uses in metabolic alkalosis?
- A.
Increased urine output
- B.
Increased respiratory rate
- C.
Decreased respiratory rate
- D.
Decreased urine output
- A.
Q42 · Mental Health Nursing · Therapeutic Communication and Nurse- Patient Relationship
Which phase of a therapeutic relationship is to bring a therapeutic end to the relationship?
- A.
Pre-interaction phase
- B.
Working phase
- C.
Orientation phase
- D.
Termination phase
- A.
Q43 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Hospital-Acquired Infections
A Nosocomial infection is also known as:
- A.
community-acquired infection
- B.
opportunistic infection
- C.
physician-induced infection
- D.
hospital-acquired infection
- A.
Q44 · Applied Nutrition & Dietetics · Nutritional Assessment and Nutrition Education
Which of the following is considered a biochemical indicator of nutritional status?
- A.
Height-for-age
- B.
Skinfold thickness
- C.
Mid-upper arm circumference
- D.
Serum ferritin levels
- A.
Q45 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Otolaryngology
Which of the following is NOT a feature of a Child Guidance Clinic?
- A.
Early intervention and family involvement
- B.
Multidisciplinary team and a holistic approach
- C.
Addressing child physical issues only
- D.
Focus on prevention and research
- A.
Q46 · Nursing Management & Leadership · Miscellaneous
A district hospital has 200 beds. In a given month, the average daily census is 150. What is the bed occupancy rate of this hospital in that month?
- A.
75%
- B.
100%
- C.
50%
- D.
25%
- A.
Q47 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Review of Specimen Collection
What is the full form of 'VTM' in microbiology?
- A.
Virulence Transport Medium
- B.
Vaccine Transport Medium
- C.
Vial Transport Medium
- D.
Viral Transport Medium
- A.
Q48 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Operative Obstetrics
The surgical widening of the pubic bone to create more space for the baby to pass through is known as:
- A.
hysterotomy
- B.
symphysiotomy
- C.
fasciotomy
- D.
episiotomy
- A.
Q49 · Nursing Management & Leadership · Management of Nursing Educational Institute
What is the full-form of 'JCI' in JCI Accreditation?
- A.
Joint Council Innovative
- B.
Joint Centre International
- C.
Joint Central Innovative
- D.
Joint Commission International
- A.
Q50 · Mental Health Nursing · Treatment modalities and therapies used in mental disorders
Which of the following group therapy techniques involves group members acting out scenarios to practice new behaviours or explore relationship patterns?
- A.
Cognitive restructuring
- B.
Role-playing
- C.
Confrontation
- D.
Guided imagery
- A.
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Q51 · Community Health Nursing · Assisting individuals and families to promote and maintain their health
Which of the following is NOT a primary objective of the NIDDCP?
- A.
Providing financial assistance for establishing the Iodine Deficiency Disorders Control Cells
- B.
Conducting surveys to assess the prevalence of Iodine Deficiency Disorders
- C.
Conducting health education and publicity campaigns
- D.
Promoting the use of non-iodised salt for better taste
- A.
Q52 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Sensorineural Function
How should a loose foreign body in the eye be managed?
- A.
Apply antibiotic ointments
- B.
Rub the eye vigorously
- C.
Irrigate with saline or water
- D.
Use tweezers for removal
- A.
Q53 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Hemorrhage in Early Pregnancy
Which is a benign condition where the glandular cells that normally line the cervical canal (endocervix) are present on the outer surface of the cervix (ectocervix)?
- A.
Cervical inversion
- B.
Cervical mole
- C.
Cervical eversion
- D.
Cervical cerclage
- A.
Q54 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Lipids
Which of the following is considered an essential fatty acid?
- A.
Oleic acid
- B.
Stearic acid
- C.
Palmitic acid
- D.
Linoleic acid
- A.
Q55 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Digestive and Gastrointestinal Function
What is the primary treatment for most cases of acute watery diarrhoea?
- A.
Intravenous fluids only
- B.
Broad spectrum-antibiotics
- C.
Oral Rehydration Solution
- D.
Antidiarrheal medications like loperamide
- A.
Q56 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Perioperative Concepts and Nursing Management
Which of these nursing interventions prevents drainage accumulation and promotes wound healing in the postoperative period?
- A.
Encourage deep breathing and controlled coughing exercises
- B.
Follow guidelines for proper wound dressing technique
- C.
Monitor for volume deficit and correct by fluid replacement as prescribed
- D.
Take measures to remove accumulated drainage secretions
- A.
Q57 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Integumentary Function
Ash-leaf spots are a hallmark cutaneous manifestation of which of the following diseases?
- A.
Tuberous Sclerosis Complex
- B.
Sturge-Weber Syndrome
- C.
Neurofibromatosis Type 1
- D.
Von Hippel-Lindau Disease
- A.
Q58 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Neurologic Function
Which of the following are the common CSF findings suggestive of bacterial meningitis?
- A.
Elevated glucose, normal protein, and predominantly lymphocytes
- B.
Decreased glucose, elevated protein, and predominantly polymorphonuclear leukocytes
- C.
Normal glucose, elevated protein, and predominantly lymphocytes
- D.
Elevated glucose, normal protein, and predominantly polymorphonuclear leukocytes
- A.
Q59 · Applied Nutrition & Dietetics · Vitamins
Which of the following vitamins is primarily essential for the synthesis of collagen?
- A.
Vitamin C
- B.
Vitamin A
- C.
Vitamin K
- D.
Vitamin E
- A.
Q60 · Nursing Foundations · Nursing Theories
What are the three interrelated theories that make up Orem's Nursing Theory?
- A.
Theory of Illness, Theory of Treatment, Theory of Recovery and Rehabilitation
- B.
Theory of Self-Care, Theory of Nursing, Theory of Health
- C.
Theory of Self-Care, Theory of Self-Care Deficit, Theory of Nursing Systems
- D.
Theory of Patient and Family, Theory of Nurse, Theory of Intervention
- A.
Q61 · Nursing Foundations · Patient Education
Which is the main principle of patient education in ambulatory care?
- A.
Discouraging patient participation in their care
- B.
Focusing solely on medication instructions and adherence
- C.
Providing complex medical information without simplification
- D.
Empowering patients to manage their health
- A.
Q62 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Cardiovascular, Circulatory, and Hematologic Function
All of the following are the potential causes of bradycardia, EXCEPT:
- A.
fever
- B.
hypothyroidism
- C.
beta-blocker drugs
- D.
athlete's heart
- A.
Q63 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Insulin, Glucose Homeostasis & Diabetes Mellitus
What macronutrient most significantly impacts postprandial blood glucose?
- A.
Carbohydrates
- B.
Fibre
- C.
Proteins
- D.
Fats
- A.
Q64 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Normal Puerperium
What is the main physiological change in the puerperium period?
- A.
Increase in blood volume
- B.
Uterine involution
- C.
Decrease in heart rate
- D.
Increase in appetite
- A.
Q65 · Applied Nutrition & Dietetics · Therapeutic Diet
Which of these cooking methods is contraindicated for a patient with cardiovascular disease?
- A.
Pressure cooking
- B.
Steaming
- C.
Deep frying
- D.
Boiling
- A.
Q66 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Miscellaneous
A small, wristwatch-like device used for objectively assessing the sleep and wake patterns by monitoring limb movements is a:
- A.
Nap test
- B.
Actigraphy
- C.
Home sleep apnea testing
- D.
Polysomnography
- A.
Q67 · Nursing Management & Leadership · Management Basics Applied to Nursing
The concept of management by objectives (MBO) was introduced by:
- A.
Frederick W Taylor
- B.
Henry Fayol
- C.
Elton Mayo
- D.
Peter Drucker
- A.
Q68 · Applied Physiology · Endocrine system
Which of the following is NOT an endocrine function of the pancreas?
- A.
Produces glucagon, which raises blood sugar levels
- B.
Produces digestive enzymes like amylase, protease and lipase
- C.
Produces insulin, which lowers blood sugar levels
- D.
It regulates blood sugar levels through a feedback mechanism
- A.
Q69 · Mental Health Nursing · Mood disorders
The depressive disorder characterised by periods of both depression and mania is termed as:
- A.
Seasonal affective disorder
- B.
Dysthymia disorder
- C.
Bipolar disorder
- D.
Persistent depressive disorder
- A.
Q70 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Musculoskeletal Function
What is indicated by a T-score of -2.8 on a DEXA scan?
- A.
Increased bone density
- B.
Normal bone density
- C.
Osteoporosis
- D.
Osteopenia
- A.
Q71 · Community Health Nursing · Communication management and Health Education
Which of the following is NOT a key action area of the Ottawa Charter for Health Promotion?
- A.
Develop personal skills
- B.
Build healthy public policy
- C.
Strengthen community action for health
- D.
Millennium development goals
- A.
Q72 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Fluid and Electrolytes: Balance and Distribution
Which electrolyte is most affected by overhydration?
- A.
Sodium
- B.
Magnesium
- C.
Potassium
- D.
Calcium
- A.
Q73 · Nursing Foundations · Health Assessment
What is the first step in patient assessment?
- A.
Checking ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation)
- B.
Documenting allergies
- C.
Taking family history
- D.
Administering medication
- A.
Q74 · Applied Physiology · Nervous System
Which cortical area is responsible for the formulation of speech?
- A.
Broca Area
- B.
Hypothalamic Area
- C.
Hippocampus
- D.
Cerebellum Area
- A.
Q75 · Pathology & Genetics · Genetics
Which of the following is a common ocular manifestation of Tuberous Sclerosis Complex (TSC)?
- A.
Retinal astrocytic hamartoma
- B.
Ectropion and entropion
- C.
Glaucoma and Schaffer's sign
- D.
Cataracts, strabismus and amblyopia
- A.
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Q76 · Pharmacology · Hormones & Related Drugs
Why should corticosteroids administered via inhaler include mouth rinsing after use?
- A.
Minimise tooth staining
- B.
Reduce bad taste
- C.
Enhance drug absorption
- D.
Prevent oral candidiasis
- A.
Q77 · Pharmacology · Drug Affecting Blood & Blood Formation
What is the use of Tranexamic acid injection?
- A.
To control or prevent life-threatening arrhythmias
- B.
To control or prevent excessive or heavy bleeding
- C.
To control or prevent infection caused by MRSA organisms
- D.
To control or prevent infection caused by VRSA organisms
- A.
Q78 · Applied Nutrition & Dietetics · Vitamins
Which of the following vitamin intakes usually enhances iron absorption?
- A.
Vitamin D
- B.
Vitamin E
- C.
Vitamin A
- D.
Vitamin C
- A.
Q79 · Nursing Management & Leadership · Management Process
What is the main goal of a concurrent nursing audit?
- A.
Evaluating the administrative practices of the nursing department of a hospital
- B.
Reviewing the financial records of the nursing department at the end of the financial year
- C.
Evaluating ongoing nursing care while the patient is still receiving treatment
- D.
Assessing care provided after a patient has been discharged from the hospital
- A.
Q80 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Miscellaneous
Which of the following signs is unique to typhoid?
- A.
Jaundice
- B.
Cyanosis
- C.
Petechial rash
- D.
Rose spots
- A.
Q81 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Normal Labor
Which sign indicates placental separation?
- A.
Fetal cry
- B.
Maternal shivering
- C.
Decreased bleeding
- D.
Uterine fundus rising and cord lengthening
- A.
Q82 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Orthopedic disorders
Which is a form of orthopaedic traction primarily used to treat femoral shaft fractures and developmental dysplasia of the hip in children under four years?
- A.
Bryant's traction
- B.
Tulloch traction
- C.
Hamilton traction
- D.
Russell's traction
- A.
Q83 · Health Information and Technology (Basic Computer) · Patient Safety & Clinical Risk
How does informatics improve patient safety?
- A.
Limits data access
- B.
Reduces medication errors via e-records
- C.
Slow documentation reduces error
- D.
Eliminates nurse training needs
- A.
Q84 · Forensic Nursing & Indian laws · Dummy
What legally defines nursing as a profession?
- A.
Nursing practice act
- B.
Physician directives
- C.
Insurance guidelines
- D.
Hospital policies
- A.
Q85 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Development
What is the first step in assessing a child's health?
- A.
Taking a health history
- B.
Physical examination
- C.
Laboratory tests
- D.
Vaccination
- A.
Q86 · Nursing Foundations · Documentation & Reporting
How should errors in nursing documentation be corrected?
- A.
Ignore minor inaccuracies
- B.
Replace the entire page
- C.
Draw a line through it, initial, and write 'error'
- D.
Erase the mistake
- A.
Q87 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Other Acute Problems
What is the initial step in controlling severe arterial bleeding?
- A.
Do not disturb the limb and leave as it is
- B.
Apply a tourniquet
- C.
Pack the wound with ice for 1-2 hours
- D.
Use direct pressure at point of bleed
- A.
Q88 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Genetic Disorders
At what age is a cleft palate usually surgically repaired to promote normal speech development?
- A.
6-12 months
- B.
At birth
- C.
After 2 years of age
- D.
2-3 months
- A.
Q89 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Anatomy of the Female Pelvic Organs
The first motion of a foetus in the uterus felt by the mother is known as:
- A.
Engagement
- B.
Lightening
- C.
Quickening
- D.
Ballottement
- A.
Q90 · Nursing Management & Leadership · Management of Nursing Service in the Hospital & Community
According to the Staff Inspection Unit (SIU) norms in India, what is the recommended nurse-to-patient ratio for general wards?
- A.
1 nurse for every 2 patients
- B.
1 nurse for every 6 patients
- C.
1 nurse for every 4 patients
- D.
1 nurse for every 10 patients
- A.
Q91 · Applied Psychology · Cognitive Process
What is the typical IQ range for individuals with moderate mental retardation?
- A.
71-100
- B.
20-40
- C.
35-49
- D.
50-70
- A.
Q92 · Nursing Management & Leadership · Nursing as a Profession
What is the objective of the nursing practice that focuses on 'providing direct care to a person who is sick'?
- A.
Promoting health
- B.
Facilitating coping with disability and death
- C.
Restoring health
- D.
Preventing illness
- A.
Q93 · Nursing Foundations · Elimination needs
For a high cleansing enema, approximately how high above the anus should the enema bag be held to ensure proper flow?
- A.
45 cm
- B.
20 cm
- C.
15 cm
- D.
90 cm
- A.
Q94 · Applied Nutrition & Dietetics · Nutritional Deficiency Disorder
The swollen belly, irritability, and flaky skin are most commonly seen in which of the following?
- A.
Marasmus
- B.
Kwashiorkor
- C.
Scurvy
- D.
Rickets
- A.
Q95 · Community Health Nursing · Demography, Surveillance and Interpretation of Data
What does infant mortality rate measure?
- A.
Infant vaccination coverage
- B.
Infant death per day
- C.
Infant death per 1000 live births
- D.
Infant death per 100 live births
- A.
Q96 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Normal Labor
Which of the following best describes the process of flexion during labour?
- A.
The foetal head extends backwards.
- B.
The foetal head rotates to align with the pelvic inlet.
- C.
The foetal head bends forward, decreasing the presenting diameter.
- D.
The foetal head is pushed upwards against the pubic bone.
- A.
Q97 · Pharmacology · Drugs Acting on Central Nervous System
Which of the following is a common side effect of anti-anxiety medications, particularly benzodiazepines?
- A.
Elevated blood pressure
- B.
Drowsiness and sedation
- C.
Enhanced memory
- D.
Increased energy levels
- A.
Q98 · Mental Health Nursing · Therapeutic Communication and Nurse- Patient Relationship
What is the central focus of Hildegard Peplau's theory?
- A.
The environmental factors affecting health
- B.
The administrative structure of healthcare organisations
- C.
The therapeutic nurse-patient relationship
- D.
The patient's physical needs and medical diagnosis
- A.
Q99 · Applied Anatomy · Digestive System
______ are narrow-edged, eight thin, straight teeth at the front of the mouth in adult humans, adapted for cutting.
- A.
Incisors
- B.
Premolars
- C.
Canines
- D.
Molars
- A.
Q100 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Fluid and Electrolytes: Balance and Distribution
What is the primary goal of using insulin and glucose in the management of hyperkalaemia?
- A.
To increase potassium uptake by the cells
- B.
To facilitate potassium excretion by the kidneys
- C.
To directly lower the serum potassium concentration
- D.
To stabilise the cardiac membrane
- A.