PGIMER Nursing Officer 2025 question paper

PGIMER Nursing Officer · 2025 · 100 questions · 100 minutes · 0.25 mark deducted per wrong answer

Medical & Surgical Nursing 17
Obstetrics & Gynaecology 15
Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) 11
Community Health Nursing 8
Applied Microbiology & Infection control 7
Nursing Foundations 7
Pharmacology 7
General Knowledge 5
Applied Physiology 4
Applied Nutrition & Dietetics 3
Biochemistry & Nutrition 3
Mental Health Nursing 3
Pathology & Genetics 2
Nursing Education 2
Applied Psychology 2
Nursing Management & Leadership 2
Nursing Research & Statistics 1
Applied Anatomy 1

See the answers and explanations

Q1 · General Knowledge · Miscellaneous
What is the primary nursing responsibility for a patient who has undergone colostomy creation?
1. A.
  Stoma hygiene and appliance management
2. B.
  Irrigation with sterile normal saline every 2 hours
3. C.
  Keeping the stoma site covered with dry cotton
4. D.
  Restricting fluid intake completely
Answer and explanation
Q2 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Fetal Skull and Maternal Pelvis
What is the smallest transverse diameter of the maternal pelvic midplane?
1. A.
  Interspinous diameter
2. B.
  Intercristal diameter
3. C.
  Diagonal conjugate
4. D.
  True conjugate
Answer and explanation
Q3 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Perioperative Concepts and Nursing Management
A nurse is caring for a post-operative patient after an abdominal surgery. Upon changing the surgical dressing, the nurse observes that the abdominal wound has opened up and loops of the intestine are protruding out. What is the immediate nursing action?
1. A.
  Push the protruding organs back into the abdominal cavity using sterile gloves
2. B.
  Cover the wound with a sterile gauze soaked in warm normal saline and call the surgeon
3. C.
  Apply a dry compression bandage over the site
4. D.
  Place the patient in high Fowler's position immediately
Answer and explanation
Q4 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · COMPLICATED LABOR-Malposition, Malpresentation and Cord Prolapse
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Breech presentation can cause cord prolapse. Reason (R): The buttocks do not fully cover the internal OS, allowing the cord to descend. Which of the following is correct?
1. A.
  A is correct, but R is incorrect.
2. B.
  A is incorrect, but R is correct.
3. C.
  Both A and R are correct, but R does not explain the correct definition of A.
4. D.
  Both A and R are correct, and R explains the correct definition of A.
Answer and explanation
Q5 · Community Health Nursing · National Health Programs
According to the national immunization schedule, at what age should the first dose of measles vaccine be given?
1. A.
  At birth
2. B.
  At 9 to 12 months
3. C.
  At 6 weeks
4. D.
  At 5 years
Answer and explanation
Q6 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Disorders of Cardiovascular System
Which congenital heart defect is characterized by a wide pulse pressure (a large difference between systolic and diastolic pressure)?
1. A.
  Atrial septal defect
2. B.
  Ventricular septal defect
3. C.
  Patent ductus arteriosus
4. D.
  Tetralogy of Fallot
Answer and explanation
Q7 · Community Health Nursing · Screening of Disease
A community health nurse is screening school-age children for tuberculosis using the Mantoux test. What is the primary clinical goal of this test?
1. A.
  To screen for tuberculosis infection
2. B.
  To determine active HIV viral load
3. C.
  To check liver enzyme levels
4. D.
  To evaluate lung capacity for asthma
Answer and explanation
Q8 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Oncology: Nursing Management in Cancer Care
A patient receiving head and neck radiation develops xerostomia. The nurse should monitor for increased risk of which complication?
1. A.
  Dental caries and other oral complications
2. B.
  Excessive salivation
3. C.
  Systemic hypertension
4. D.
  Hyperkalemia
Answer and explanation
Q9 · Pathology & Genetics · Systemic Pathology
Destruction of gastric parietal cells causes lack of intrinsic factor and prevents vitamin B12 absorption. Which condition results from this?
1. A.
  Iron deficiency anemia
2. B.
  Pernicious anemia
3. C.
  Aplastic anemia
4. D.
  Sickle cell anemia
Answer and explanation
Q10 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Antepartum Hemorrhage
A 28-week pregnant woman presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound confirms placenta previa. Which intervention should the nurse strictly avoid, and what is the primary initial management plan?
1. A.
  Avoid per vaginal examination, establish IV access, and prepare for cesarean section if required
2. B.
  Perform a digital vaginal examination immediately to check cervical dilation
3. C.
  Start an oxytocin infusion for rapid delivery
4. D.
  Place the patient in high Fowler's position and perform a pelvic assessment
Answer and explanation
Q11 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Disorders of Cardiovascular System
Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by four specific anatomical defects. Which set correctly lists them?
1. A.
  Ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy
2. B.
  Atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus, and coarctation of the aorta
3. C.
  Transposition of the great arteries, aortic stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and atrial septal defect
4. D.
  Tricuspid atresia, pulmonary atresia, atrial septal defect, and ventricular septal defect
Answer and explanation
Q12 · Nursing Education · Introduction and Theoretical Foundations
What is the primary purpose of continuing education programs in the nursing profession?
1. A.
  To fulfill the initial requirements for obtaining a nursing license
2. B.
  To provide institution-specific training on new equipment and policies
3. C.
  To maintain current skills, acquire new knowledge, and learn new techniques
4. D.
  To prepare for graduate-level studies in a specialized nursing field
Answer and explanation
Q13 · Nursing Education · Introduction and Theoretical Foundations
Which theory is most commonly used to guide effective communication and behavior change in health education?
1. A.
  Betty Neuman's Systems Model
2. B.
  Health Belief Model
3. C.
  Orem's Self-Care Theory
4. D.
  Roy's Adaptation Model
Answer and explanation
Q14 · Applied Psychology · Personality
A male college student who is smaller than average and unable to participate in sports becomes the life of the party and a stylish dresser. What defense mechanism should the nurse determine that the client is using?
1. A.
  Introjection
2. B.
  Sublimation
3. C.
  Compensation
4. D.
  Projection
Answer and explanation
Q15 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Newborn Infants
Following birth, a baby has secretions in the mouth and nose. How should suctioning be performed in the newborn?
1. A.
  Mouth followed by nose
2. B.
  Nose followed by mouth
3. C.
  Only mouth
4. D.
  Only nose
Answer and explanation
Q16 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Term Newborn Infant
A staff nurse in the labor room is performing a routine initial assessment of a newborn. At what specific post-delivery intervals should the APGAR score be assessed?
1. A.
  Immediately after delivery and at 10 minutes
2. B.
  At 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth
3. C.
  Every 15 minutes for the first hour
4. D.
  At 5 minutes and 30 minutes
Answer and explanation
Q17 · General Knowledge · Miscellaneous
In biomedical ethics, respecting a patient's right to make self-determined decisions about medical care is known as:
1. A.
  Autonomy
2. B.
  Beneficence
3. C.
  Non-maleficence
4. D.
  Fidelity
Answer and explanation
Q18 · Community Health Nursing · Screening of Disease
Which test was historically used in community health to determine susceptibility or immunity to Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
1. A.
  Schick test
2. B.
  Dick test
3. C.
  Cooley's test
4. D.
  Patch test
Answer and explanation
Q19 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Diseases of Gastrointestinal System and Liver
A 2-year-old child has acute watery diarrhea for 1 day, normal skin turgor, and no signs of dehydration. What is the appropriate initial management?
1. A.
  Home management with ORS, adequate fluids, and continued feeding
2. B.
  Immediate ICU admission for IV fluids
3. C.
  Start IV antibiotics immediately
4. D.
  Keep the child nil by mouth for 24 hours
Answer and explanation
Q20 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Hand Hygiene
What is the simplest, most cost-effective, and primary nursing measure to prevent hospital-acquired infection and cross-infection among hospitalized patients?
1. A.
  Daily prophylactic antibiotic administration
2. B.
  Handwashing
3. C.
  Wearing double masks at all times
4. D.
  Isolating every patient in negative-pressure rooms
Answer and explanation
Q21 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Antenatal Care, Preconceptional Counseling and Care
A pregnant client is making her first antenatal visit. She has:

A 2-year-old son born at 40 weeks.

A 5-year-old daughter born at 38 weeks.

7-year-old twin daughters born at 35 weeks.

A spontaneous abortion 3 years ago at 10 weeks.

Using the GTPAL format, what should the nurse document?
1. A.
  G4 T3 P2 A1 L4
2. B.
  G5 T2 P2 A1 L4
3. C.
  G5 T2 P1 A1 L4
4. D.
  G4 T3 P1 A1 L4
Answer and explanation
Q22 · Nursing Foundations · Vital Signs
During physical assessment, an adult patient's respiratory rate is 34 breaths per minute. How should this finding be documented?
1. A.
  Tachypnea
2. B.
  Bradypnea
3. C.
  Apnea
4. D.
  Eupnea
Answer and explanation
Q23 · General Knowledge · Miscellaneous
A patient presents with increased neuromuscular excitability, tetany, and positive Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs. Which electrolyte imbalance is responsible?
1. A.
  Hypocalcemia
2. B.
  Hyperkalemia
3. C.
  Hypernatremia
4. D.
  Hypomagnesemia
Answer and explanation
Q24 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Gas Exchange and Respiratory Function
What is the standard internal diameter size of an endotracheal tube commonly used for an average adult patient?
1. A.
  7.5 to 8.0 mm
2. B.
  3.0 to 4.0 mm
3. C.
  10.0 to 12.0 mm
4. D.
  5.0 to 6.0 mm
Answer and explanation
Q25 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Hospital-Acquired Infections
A nurse is preparing to change the dressing of a patient with a central venous catheter. Which antiseptic is preferred for cleaning the catheter insertion site?
1. A.
  2% Chlorhexidine in alcohol
2. B.
  70% Isopropyl alcohol
3. C.
  Povidone-iodine
4. D.
  Methylated spirit
Answer and explanation
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Q26 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Neurologic Function
In a patient with traumatic brain injury and acutely raised intracranial pressure, which ventilation intervention can rapidly reduce intracranial pressure through cerebral vasoconstriction?
1. A.
  Hyperventilation
2. B.
  Hypoventilation
3. C.
  Placing the patient in Trendelenburg position
4. D.
  Rapid administration of high-volume IV fluids
Answer and explanation
Q27 · Applied Nutrition & Dietetics · Therapeutic Diet
Total parenteral nutrition solution is highly hypertonic. Which venous access route is preferred for safe administration?
1. A.
  Peripheral IV line, 22 gauge
2. B.
  Central line
3. C.
  Subcutaneous butterfly needle
4. D.
  Intraosseous line
Answer and explanation
Q28 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Immunization and Immunodeficiency
Which site is preferred for administering Intramuscular (IM) injections in infants under 12 months of age?
1. A.
  Ventrogluteal site
2. B.
  Dorsogluteal site
3. C.
  Vastus lateralis muscle
4. D.
  Deltoid muscle
Answer and explanation
Q29 · Nursing Research & Statistics · Introduction to Statistics
A new screening test correctly identifies 98% of patients who actually have the disease. Which characteristic of the test does this finding represent?
1. A.
  High specificity
2. B.
  High sensitivity
3. C.
  High reliability
4. D.
  High validity
Answer and explanation
Q30 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Nutrition
A weight-for-height z-score of -2.9 in a child indicates which condition?
1. A.
  Severe wasting
2. B.
  Moderate wasting
3. C.
  Stunting
4. D.
  Underweight
Answer and explanation
Q31 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Prenatal Genetic Counseling, Screening and Diagnosis
A client at 9 weeks' gestation asks the nurse in the prenatal clinic if she can have her chorionic villi sampling (CVS) done at this visit. At what week gestation should the nurse respond is the best time for this test?
1. A.
  8 weeks and less than 10 weeks
2. B.
  10 weeks and less than 12 weeks
3. C.
  12 weeks and less than 14 weeks
4. D.
  14 weeks and less than 16 weeks
Answer and explanation
Q32 · Pharmacology · Drugs Acting on Central Nervous System
A patient is receiving intravenous morphine for pain control. Which assessment must the nurse prioritize to prevent life-threatening toxicity?
1. A.
  Respiratory rate
2. B.
  Body temperature
3. C.
  Blood glucose level
4. D.
  Serum creatinine
Answer and explanation
Q33 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Micronutrients in Health and Disease
Recommended daily dose of zinc for management of diarrhea in children (as per WHO):?
1. A.
  10 mg/day for <6 months, 20 mg/day for >6 months
2. B.
  5 mg/day for all children
3. C.
  15 mg/day for all children
4. D.
  25 mg/day for >6 months
Answer and explanation
Q34 · Nursing Management & Leadership · Management Basics Applied to Nursing
A nurse manager allows staff nurses to participate in decision-making, encourages them to express their opinions, and considers their suggestions before making a final decision. Which leadership style is being demonstrated?
1. A.
  Autocratic leadership
2. B.
  Democratic leadership
3. C.
  Laissez-faire leadership
4. D.
  Bureaucratic leadership
Answer and explanation
Q35 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Diagnosis of Pregnancy
During a bimanual pelvic examination at 6 to 8 weeks of gestation, softening of the lower uterine segment is noted. What probable sign of pregnancy is this?
1. A.
  Goodell's sign
2. B.
  Hegar sign
3. C.
  Chadwick's sign
4. D.
  Osiander sign
Answer and explanation
Q36 · Pharmacology · Cardiovascular Drugs
In the ICU, a monitor shows ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. After CPR and defibrillation, which antiarrhythmic medication is preferred?
1. A.
  Digoxin or adenosine
2. B.
  Amiodarone or lidocaine
3. C.
  Metoprolol or diltiazem
4. D.
  Atropine or dopamine
Answer and explanation
Q37 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Cardiovascular, Circulatory, and Hematologic Function
A patient presents with bilateral leg edema, elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP), and marked abdominal distention (ascites). Which underlying clinical condition is primarily described by these combined assessment findings?
1. A.
  Right-sided heart failure
2. B.
  Left-sided heart failure
3. C.
  Acute arterial occlusion of lower limbs
4. D.
  Deep Vein Thrombosis
Answer and explanation
Q38 · Applied Nutrition & Dietetics · National Nutritional Program and Role
PM POSHAN (Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman) scheme was started in which year?
1. A.
  2020
2. B.
  2021
3. C.
  2022
4. D.
  2019
Answer and explanation
Q39 · Nursing Foundations · Administration of medications
During medication administration, a nurse calculates the drug volume using basic formulas. What is the primary objective of nursing drug dose calculation?
1. A.
  To calculate the correct medication dose for safe administration
2. B.
  To determine the drug manufacturing cost
3. C.
  To calculate the biological half-life of the drug
4. D.
  To decrease the patient's hospital stay duration
Answer and explanation
Q40 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Diagnosis of Pregnancy
In obstetrics, the clinical sign of detecting uterine contractions by abdominal palpation with the hand is known as:
1. A.
  Palmer sign
2. B.
  Braxton Hicks sign
3. C.
  Cullen's sign
4. D.
  Turner's sign
Answer and explanation
Q41 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Gas Exchange and Respiratory Function
To prevent tracheal mucosal ischemia, necrosis, and tissue damage, what is the maximum recommended safe cuff pressure for a tracheostomy tube?
1. A.
  Cuff pressure less than 25 mmHg
2. B.
  Cuff pressure greater than 40 mmHg
3. C.
  Cuff pressure 50 to 60 mmHg
4. D.
  Cuff pressure less than 5 mmHg
Answer and explanation
Q42 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Proteins
Phenylketonuria is detected by which urine test?
1. A.
  Guthrie test
2. B.
  Sodium nitroprusside test
3. C.
  Blot test
4. D.
  Ferric chloride test
Answer and explanation
Q43 · Applied Physiology · Circulatory & Lymphatic system
Central venous pressure measurement evaluates pressure within which central cardiovascular location?
1. A.
  Right atrium and superior vena cava
2. B.
  Left ventricle and aorta
3. C.
  Radial artery
4. D.
  Femoral vein only
Answer and explanation
Q44 · Applied Physiology · Digestive system
Which key digestive enzymes are present in pancreatic juice?
1. A.
  Amylase, lipase, and proteases
2. B.
  Pepsin, rennin, and hydrochloric acid
3. C.
  Ptyalin, bile salts, and bilirubin
4. D.
  Gastrin, secretin, and insulin
Answer and explanation
Q45 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Normal Labor
After performing Leopold maneuvers on a laboring client, a nurse determines that the fetus is in the right occiput posterior (ROP) position. Where should the Doppler be placed to best auscultate fetal heart tones?
1. A.
  Above the umbilicus in the midline
2. B.
  Above the umbilicus on the left side
3. C.
  Below the umbilicus on the right side
4. D.
  Below the umbilicus near the left groin
Answer and explanation
Q46 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Immunization and Immunodeficiency
After BCG vaccine administration, after how many weeks should the vaccine site be checked for ‘take’ response?
1. A.
  6–8 weeks
2. B.
  4–6 weeks
3. C.
  3–4 weeks
4. D.
  2–3 weeks
Answer and explanation
Q47 · Pharmacology · Cardiovascular Drugs
What is the primary therapeutic cardiac effect of beta-blockers such as metoprolol?
1. A.
  Increase heart rate significantly
2. B.
  Decrease myocardial oxygen consumption
3. C.
  Increase myocardial oxygen demand
4. D.
  Cause systemic vasoconstriction
Answer and explanation
Q48 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Gas Exchange and Respiratory Function
A patient has an 85% oxygen saturation in room air. What should be the next nursing priority?
1. A.
  Place the patient on a non-rebreather mask (NRM)
2. B.
  Suggest a nasal cannula
3. C.
  Perform intubation
4. D.
  Begin bag-mask ventilation (BMV)
Answer and explanation
Q49 · Nursing Management & Leadership · Management of Nursing Service in the Hospital & Community
A nurse manager is implementing the 5S methodology to improve organization and efficiency in the nursing unit. Which sequence is correct?
1. A.
  Sort → Set in Order → Shine → Standardize → Sustain
2. B.
  Sort → Shine → Set in Order → Sustain → Standardize
3. C.
  Set in Order → Sort → Shine → Standardize → Sustain
4. D.
  Shine → Set in Order → Sort → Standardize → Sustain
Answer and explanation
Q50 · General Knowledge · Miscellaneous
What is the recommended management plan for a school-age child diagnosed with pediculosis capitis?
1. A.
  Topical permethrin with combing of the hair
2. B.
  Oral amoxicillin course
3. C.
  Daily hot water bath without medication
4. D.
  Washing hair with alcohol solution
Answer and explanation
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Q51 · General Knowledge · Miscellaneous
Immediately after IV antibiotic administration, a patient develops severe dyspnea, hypotension, and generalized urticaria consistent with anaphylactic shock. Which drug should the nurse administer immediately?
1. A.
  Atropine sulfate
2. B.
  Hydrocortisone
3. C.
  Adrenaline
4. D.
  Dopamine infusion
Answer and explanation
Q52 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Gas Exchange and Respiratory Function
While assessing a client on mechanical ventilation in the ICU, the High-Pressure Alarm on the ventilator suddenly triggers. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate sequence of nursing interventions?
1. A.
  Disconnect the patient -* Administer sedatives-Call the physician
2. B.
  Check for secretions/kinks in tubing -Suction if necessary - Manual bag-ventilate if trouble persists
3. C.
  Increase oxygen concentration to 100%- Change ventilator tubing immediately
4. D.
  Silence the alarm -Deflate the endotracheal tube cuff -Re-evaluate breath sounds
Answer and explanation
Q53 · Community Health Nursing · Family planning
According to NFHS-5, India’s unmet need for family planning decreased from 12.9% in NFHS-4 to approximately what percentage?
1. A.
  7.2%
2. B.
  8.1%
3. C.
  9.4%
4. D.
  12.0%
Answer and explanation
Q54 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Insulin, Glucose Homeostasis & Diabetes Mellitus
A patient receiving prolonged infusion of high-concentration dextrose should be monitored closely for which metabolic risk?
1. A.
  Hyperglycemia with osmotic diuresis
2. B.
  Severe hypoglycemia
3. C.
  Metabolic alkalosis
4. D.
  Fluid volume deficit with hypothermia
Answer and explanation
Q55 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Gas Exchange and Respiratory Function
What is the primary laboratory evaluation used to measure arterial oxygenation, carbon dioxide tension, and acid-base status in critically ill patients?
1. A.
  Arterial blood gas analysis
2. B.
  Routine urine protein check
3. C.
  Blood group cross-matching
4. D.
  Stool occult blood testing
Answer and explanation
Q56 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Benign Lesions of the Uterus
A 35-year-old pregnant woman is at high risk of which malignancy?
1. A.
  Breast cancer
2. B.
  Ovarian cancer
3. C.
  Cervical cancer
4. D.
  Uterine cancer
Answer and explanation
Q57 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Urinary Tract Function
A male client post-transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) has a 3-way Foley catheter with Continuous Bladder Irrigation (CBI) running. The nurse notes bright red urine with large clots in the drainage bag and the patient complains of severe lower abdominal spasms. What is the nurse’s IMMEDIATE priority action?
1. A.
  Increase the rate of continuous bladder irrigation
2. B.
  Stop the irrigation and manually irrigate the catheter with sterile normal saline as prescribed
3. C.
  Administer an IV analgesic for bladder spasm
4. D.
  Notify the attending urologist immediately
Answer and explanation
Q58 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Immunity
Under the types of immunity, immunity acquired through routine childhood vaccination falls into which category?
1. A.
  Artificial active immunity
2. B.
  Natural passive immunity only
3. C.
  Innate non-specific immunity only
4. D.
  Artificial passive immunity only
Answer and explanation
Q59 · Nursing Foundations · Administration of medications
What is the correct clinical procedure for administering ophthalmic drops?
1. A.
  Instill drops directly on the cornea
2. B.
  Instill into the lower conjunctival sac and apply gentle pressure to the lacrimal sac when indicated
3. C.
  Rub the eyes immediately after instillation
4. D.
  Wipe from outer canthus to inner canthus with used cotton
Answer and explanation
Q60 · Pharmacology · Drug Affecting Blood & Blood Formation
A patient is prescribed warfarin therapy. Which laboratory value must be routinely monitored to assess therapeutic effect and bleeding risk?
1. A.
  INR
2. B.
  Serum sodium
3. C.
  Platelet count only
4. D.
  Blood urea nitrogen
Answer and explanation
Q61 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Population Dynamics and Control of Conception
A nurse is teaching a group of women about the side effects of different types of contraceptives. What is the most frequent side effect associated with the use of an intrauterine device (IUD)?
1. A.
  A tubal pregnancy
2. B.
  A rupture of the uterus
3. C.
  An expulsion of the device
4. D.
  An excessive menstrual flow
Answer and explanation
Q62 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Gas Exchange and Respiratory Function
Which body position should the nurse give to a patient experiencing acute respiratory distress due to status asthmaticus?
1. A.
  Supine position
2. B.
  High Fowler's position
3. C.
  Trendelenburg position
4. D.
  Prone position
Answer and explanation
Q63 · Community Health Nursing · Environmental Science, Environmental Health, and Sanitation
Which ecological method is used for community-level biological treatment of wastewater and sewage?
1. A.
  Oxidation pond
2. B.
  Autoclaving
3. C.
  Chlorination of open wells
4. D.
  Rapid sand filtration for air
Answer and explanation
Q64 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Genital Malignancy
A nurse in the women's health clinic is counseling clients about the signs of gynecological problems. What early manifestation of cervical cancer should prompt a client to seek professional care?
1. A.
  Abdominal heaviness
2. B.
  Pressure on the bladder
3. C.
  Foul-smelling discharge
4. D.
  Bloody spotting after intercourse
Answer and explanation
Q65 · Pathology & Genetics · Genetics
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. What is its key pathophysiological hallmark?
1. A.
  Genetic disorder with thick mucus secretion
2. B.
  Watery diarrhea and severe dehydration
3. C.
  Decreased red blood cell production in the bone marrow
4. D.
  Thin serous drainage from exocrine glands
Answer and explanation
Q66 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Gas Exchange and Respiratory Function
What essential nursing interventions must be included in the care plan of a patient with a newly placed tracheostomy tube?
1. A.
  Frequent tube displacement
2. B.
  Suctioning, cuff monitoring, and tracheostomy hygiene
3. C.
  Continuous high-pressure mechanical ventilation without humidification
4. D.
  Restricting fluids to reduce secretions
Answer and explanation
Q67 · Applied Physiology · Endocrine system
Which laboratory finding most strongly supports a diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism?
1. A.
  Low thyroid hormone levels, T3 and T4
2. B.
  Elevated free T4 levels
3. C.
  Low TSH with elevated T3
4. D.
  Hypermetabolic basal state
Answer and explanation
Q68 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Newborn Infants
A term neonate loses about 5 percent to 10 percent of birth weight during the first 10 days of life. How should the nurse categorize this change?
1. A.
  Normal physiologic weight loss
2. B.
  Severe dehydration requiring IV fluids
3. C.
  Pathologic weight loss due to infection
4. D.
  Failure to thrive
Answer and explanation
Q69 · Applied Nutrition & Dietetics · Nutritional Assessment and Nutrition Education
According to clinical standards, an adult BMI less than 18.5 kg per square meter indicates underweight status. For protein-energy malnutrition screening, what is the MUAC cutoff in the given options?
1. A.
  BMI less than 18.5 and MUAC less than 11.5 cm
2. B.
  BMI less than 25 and MUAC less than 15 cm
3. C.
  BMI less than 30 and MUAC less than 13.5 cm
4. D.
  BMI less than 16 and MUAC less than 8 cm
Answer and explanation
Q70 · Biochemistry & Nutrition · Proteins
Before a major subtotal gastrectomy, which serum protein is assessed to evaluate nutritional status and wound-healing potential?
1. A.
  Albumin level
2. B.
  Serum globulin
3. C.
  Troponin I
4. D.
  Serum bilirubin
Answer and explanation
Q71 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Metabolic and Endocrine Function
A 52-year-old patient with increased thirst and frequent urination is evaluated for diabetes. His fasting plasma glucose is 128 mg/dL, and his HbA1c is 6.7%. Which interpretation is most appropriate?
1. A.
  HbA1c indicates normal glycemic status
2. B.
  HbA1c is consistent with prediabetes
3. C.
  HbA1c is consistent with diabetes mellitus
4. D.
  HbA1c indicates impaired fasting glucose only
Answer and explanation
Q72 · Pharmacology · Drug Affecting Blood & Blood Formation
Which class of medication is routinely prescribed for secondary prevention of ischemic stroke in high-risk patients?
1. A.
  Antiplatelet drugs
2. B.
  Antihistamines
3. C.
  Muscle relaxants
4. D.
  Broad-spectrum antibiotics
Answer and explanation
Q73 · Pharmacology · Drugs Acting on Central Nervous System
A psychiatric patient with schizophrenia is taking the antipsychotic drug clozapine. Which of the following is a serious potential side effect of Clozapine treatment?
1. A.
  Increased appetite
2. B.
  Agranulocytosis
3. C.
  Enhanced memory
4. D.
  Mild drowsiness
Answer and explanation
Q74 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Orthopedic disorders
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital clubfoot. What is the most widely accepted and effective initial non-operative treatment for this condition?
1. A.
  Surgical tendon lengthening
2. B.
  Application of corrective splints and braces
3. C.
  The Ponseti method of serial casting
4. D.
  Passive stretching exercises taught to parents
Answer and explanation
Q75 · Mental Health Nursing · Neurotic, stress related and somatisation disorders
An extreme or irrational fear of being in small enclosed spaces, such as elevators, is called:
1. A.
  Claustrophobia
2. B.
  Agoraphobia
3. C.
  Acrophobia
4. D.
  Hydrophobia
Answer and explanation
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Q76 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Perioperative Concepts and Nursing Management
Following a tonsillectomy, which clinical sign should the nurse closely monitor to detect early postoperative hemorrhage?
1. A.
  Frequent swallowing indicating bleeding
2. B.
  High-grade fever
3. C.
  Excessive sleepiness
4. D.
  Urinary retention
Answer and explanation
Q77 · Applied Anatomy · Respiratory System
What is the double-layered serous membrane that covers and protects the lungs?
1. A.
  Pericardium
2. B.
  Pleura
3. C.
  Peritoneum
4. D.
  Meninges
Answer and explanation
Q78 · Community Health Nursing · Family planning
Which of the following statements about the Nishchay Kit and related family planning programs in India is correct?
1. A.
  Nishchay kit provides free iron tablets to pregnant women only
2. B.
  Nishchay kit is a government-provided free pregnancy testing kit under family planning initiatives
3. C.
  Free contraceptives are not part of Mission Parivar Vikas
4. D.
  The program started only in 2020 as part of Ayushman Bharat
Answer and explanation
Q79 · Applied Physiology · Sensory organs
An elderly patient reports difficulty reading fine print up close due to age-related loss of accommodation. What is this condition called?
1. A.
  Myopia
2. B.
  Presbyopia
3. C.
  Astigmatism
4. D.
  Hyperopia
Answer and explanation
Q80 · Nursing Foundations · Mobility & Immobility
In an immobilized bedridden patient, what is the primary mechanical force responsible for deep tissue damage and pressure injury during repositioning or sliding down in bed?
1. A.
  Shearing
2. B.
  Friction only
3. C.
  Moisture
4. D.
  Maceration
Answer and explanation
Q81 · Nursing Foundations · Oxygenation needs
What is the recommended suction pressure for adults?
1. A.
  60-80 mm Hg
2. B.
  80-100 mm Hg
3. C.
  100-120 mm Hg
4. D.
  120-200 mm Hg
Answer and explanation
Q82 · Mental Health Nursing · Eating Disorders
What is an appropriate behavior modification goal for a client with anorexia nervosa?
1. A.
  Eat every meal for a week.
2. B.
  Gain 1 pound of weight a week.
3. C.
  Attend group therapy every day.
4. D.
  Talk about food for 1 hour a day.
Answer and explanation
Q83 · Nursing Foundations · Administration of medications
When administering an intramuscular injection, which factors must the nurse strictly follow to ensure proper drug absorption and avoid injury?
1. A.
  Correct site, angle, and technique
2. B.
  Always inject at a 15-degree angle
3. C.
  Massage the site vigorously for all injections
4. D.
  Recap needles with both hands after injection
Answer and explanation
Q84 · Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics) · Development
In pediatric health evaluation, what parameter is primarily assessed to monitor an infant's age-appropriate functional progress?
1. A.
  Developmental milestones
2. B.
  Liver function tests
3. C.
  Adult height projections
4. D.
  Immunoglobulin profile
Answer and explanation
Q85 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Disinfection and Sterilization
Which chemical disinfectant is standardly used for high-level disinfection and cold sterilization of flexible gastrointestinal endoscopes?
1. A.
  Cidex, 2 percent glutaraldehyde
2. B.
  70 percent isopropyl alcohol
3. C.
  1 percent sodium hypochlorite
4. D.
  3 percent hydrogen peroxide
Answer and explanation
Q86 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Premalignant Lesions
PAP smear test is used for?
1. A.
  Screening for cervical cancer
2. B.
  Screening for ovarian cancer
3. C.
  Confirmation for cervical cancer
4. D.
  Confirmation of ovarian cancer
Answer and explanation
Q87 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Hospital-Acquired Infections
A patient develops high-grade fever and productive cough 60 hours after admission to the hospital. How is this condition classified?
1. A.
  Nosocomial infection occurring more than 48 to 72 hours after admission
2. B.
  Community-acquired infection before 24 hours
3. C.
  Congenital infection
4. D.
  Latent endemic infection
Answer and explanation
Q88 · Pharmacology · Chemotherapy of Neoplastic Drugs
When monitoring a patient receiving high-dose methotrexate therapy, which option is identified as associated with methotrexate neurotoxicity and cranial nerve monitoring?
1. A.
  Associated cranial nerve involvement in methotrexate toxicity
2. B.
  Cranial nerve I, olfactory
3. C.
  Cranial nerve II, optic
4. D.
  Cranial nerve X, vagus
Answer and explanation
Q89 · Community Health Nursing · Epidemiology – Epidemiological Approaches and Processes
Which epidemiological indicator measures the severity and lethality of a disease during an epidemic outbreak?
1. A.
  Case fatality rate
2. B.
  Crude birth rate
3. C.
  Proportional mortality ratio
4. D.
  Incidence rate
Answer and explanation
Q90 · Mental Health Nursing · Principles and Concepts of Mental Health Nursing
During a psychiatric assessment, a patient involuntarily repeats the exact words spoken by the interviewer. What speech disturbance is this?
1. A.
  Echolalia
2. B.
  Echopraxia
3. C.
  Neologism
4. D.
  Confabulation
Answer and explanation
Q91 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Diagnosis of Pregnancy
Which sign of pregnancy is considered a POSITIVE (Diagnostic) sign?
1. A.
  Amenorrhea
2. B.
  Positive Urine Pregnancy Test (HCG)
3. C.
  Fetal Heart Tones heard by Doppler
4. D.
  Hegar’s Sign
Answer and explanation
Q92 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Metabolic and Endocrine Function
A client with severe Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving regular insulin IV infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hr. The nurse observes that the blood glucose level has dropped from 480 mg/dL to 240 mg/dL. According to updated clinical guidelines, what fluid management change should the nurse anticipate?
1. A.
  Stop the insulin infusion completely and switch to subcutaneous doses
2. B.
  Add 5% Dextrose to the IV fluids while continuing insulin infusion
3. C.
  Increase the Regular Insulin drip rate to lower glucose faster
4. D.
  Administer 50% Dextrose bolus IV immediately
Answer and explanation
Q93 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Complications of the Third Stage of Labor
What is the minimum amount of blood loss that defines postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) in vaginal delivery with vital sign abnormal ?
1. A.
  200 ml
2. B.
  300 ml
3. C.
  400 ml
4. D.
  500 ml
Answer and explanation
Q94 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Fluid and Electrolytes: Balance and Distribution
During the initial 24 hours of resuscitation in a patient with severe burns, what is the most reliable objective indicator of adequate fluid resuscitation?
1. A.
  Urine output
2. B.
  Daily body weight
3. C.
  Serum potassium level
4. D.
  Skin turgor at the burn site
Answer and explanation
Q95 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Employee Safety Indicators
A healthcare worker experiences an accidental needle-stick injury from an HIV-positive patient. Within what time frame should post-exposure prophylaxis be started?
1. A.
  Within 72 hours of the needle-stick injury
2. B.
  After 7 days of exposure
3. C.
  Within 1 month
4. D.
  Only when clinical symptoms appear
Answer and explanation
Q96 · Applied Microbiology & Infection control · Disinfection and Sterilization
Boiling water at 100 degrees C for 20 minutes is categorized under which method of sterilization or disinfection?
1. A.
  Moist heat method
2. B.
  Chemical sterilization
3. C.
  Ionizing radiation
4. D.
  Gaseous sterilization
Answer and explanation
Q97 · Nursing Foundations · Fluid, electrolytes & Acid-base balances
A nurse is ordered to infuse 250 mL of IV fluid over 12 hours using tubing with a drop factor of 15 drops per mL. Which calculation correctly gives the drop rate?
1. A.
  250 × 15 ÷ (12 × 60) = about 5 drops per minute
2. B.
  250 × 60 ÷ (12 × 15) = 120 drops per minute
3. C.
  125 × 15 ÷ (6 × 60) = 5 drops per minute
4. D.
  250 × 10 ÷ (24 × 60) = 2 drops per minute
Answer and explanation
Q98 · Medical & Surgical Nursing · Sensorineural Function
On ophthalmoscopic examination, a patient with chronic uncontrolled hypertension shows retinal vessel abnormalities and tiny hemorrhagic spots. What is this presentation termed?
1. A.
  Flea-bitten retina
2. B.
  Cherry-red spot
3. C.
  Papilledema only
4. D.
  Cotton wool spots only
Answer and explanation
Q99 · Applied Psychology · Motivation & Emotional Processes
A nurse is planning to teach a client about self-care. What level of anxiety will best enhance the client's learning abilities?
1. A.
  Mild
2. B.
  Panic
3. C.
  Severe
4. D.
  Moderate
Answer and explanation
Q100 · Community Health Nursing · Epidemiology of Chronic Non-Communicable Diseases & Conditions
Which noncommunicable disease (NCD) is responsible for the highest number of deaths in India, according to the WHO?
1. A.
  Chronic respiratory diseases
2. B.
  Cardiovascular diseases
3. C.
  Diabetes
4. D.
  Cancer
Answer and explanation

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